1. Q1Open question

    Consider the following Peshwas and arrange them in ascending chronological order: 1. Raghunath Rao (Raghoba) 2. Balaji Baji Rao 3. Narayan Rao 4. Balaji Vishwanath Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 4, 2, 3, 1
    2. 3, 4, 1, 2
    3. 1, 2, 3, 4
    4. 1, 3, 2, 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 4, 2, 3, 1

    Explanation

    Balaji Vishwanath (1713-20), Balaji Baji Rao (1740-61), Narayan Rao (1772-73), Raghunath Rao (1773-74).

  2. Q2Open question

    Consider the following statements with reference to early trade: 1. There are references of numerous river-ports in ancient India. 2. There were large entrepots of goods and traffic. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Only 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Ancient texts and the Periplus mention many river-ports (Tamralipti, Pratishthana, etc.) and great entrepots handling goods and traffic.

  3. Q3Open question

    Arrange the following Sena rulers of Bengal in ascending chronological order: 1. Ballal Sen 2. Lakshman Sen 3. Hemant Sen 4. Vijaya Sen Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 4, 3, 2, 1
    2. 2, 1, 4, 3
    3. 1, 2, 3, 4
    4. 3, 4, 1, 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 3, 4, 1, 2

    Explanation

    Hemanta Sena (founder), Vijaya Sena, Ballala Sena and Lakshmana Sena.

  4. Q4Open question

    Consider the following statements with reference to Bairam Khan: 1. Akbar gave the title of Khan-i-Khana to Bairam Khan. 2. This title was not given at the time of appointment of Bairam Khan as Vazir of the Empire. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Only 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only 1

    Explanation

    Akbar conferred the title Khan-i-Khanan on Bairam Khan when appointing him Vakil (regent/chief minister) in 1556, so statement 2 is incorrect.

  5. Q5Open question

    Write in descending order the following States on the basis of their population as per Census, 2011: 1. Bihar 2. Andhra Pradesh 3. Uttar Pradesh 4. West Bengal Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 3, 4, 1, 2
    2. 1, 3, 2, 4
    3. 1, 3, 4, 2
    4. 3, 1, 4, 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 3, 1, 4, 2

    Explanation

    Census 2011: UP 19.98 crore > Bihar 10.4 crore > West Bengal 9.13 crore > undivided Andhra Pradesh 8.46 crore.

  6. Q6Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Report): A. Human Development Report B. World Economic Outlook C. World Investment Report D. Emissions Gap Report List-II (Publisher): 1. International Monetary Fund 2. United Nations Environment Programme 3. United Nations Development Programme 4. United Nations Conference on Trade and Development Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
    2. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    3. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    4. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

    Explanation

    HDR - UNDP; World Economic Outlook - IMF; World Investment Report - UNCTAD; Emissions Gap Report - UNEP.

  7. Q7Open question

    Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest: 1. Pradhan Mantri Gramodaya Yojana 2. Rural Employment Generation Programme 3. Prime Minister Rozgar Yojana 4. Valmiki Ambedkar Awas Yojana Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 2, 3, 4, 1
    2. 4, 2, 1, 3
    3. 1, 2, 3, 4
    4. 3, 2, 1, 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 3, 2, 1, 4

    Explanation

    PMRY (1993), REGP (1995), PMGY (2000-01) and VAMBAY (2001).

  8. Q8Open question

    Match List-I (Economist/Author) with List-II (Book). List-I (Economist/Author): A. Myrdal B. Hirschman C. Kaldor D. Adam Smith List-II (Book): 1. Economic Theory and Under-developed Regions 2. The Strategy of Economic Development 3. Strategic Factors in Economic Development 4. The Wealth of Nations Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    2. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
    3. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
    4. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

    Explanation

    Gunnar Myrdal - Economic Theory and Under-developed Regions (1957); Hirschman - The Strategy of Economic Development (1958); Kaldor - Strategic Factors in Economic Development (1967); Adam Smith - The Wealth of Nations (1776).

  9. Q9Open question

    Which of the following statements is NOT true about 'ecological niche'?

    1. Dominant species occupy extensive and broader ecological niche.
    2. Number of species becomes large in ecological niche of natural ecosystem, if resources are sufficient.
    3. Number of species becomes small in ecological niche, if resources are sufficient.
    4. Dominance of single species becomes minimum if the resource distribution is equitable in a habitat.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Number of species becomes small in ecological niche, if resources are sufficient.

    Explanation

    Abundant resources allow more species to coexist, so species number rises rather than falls when resources are sufficient.

  10. Q10Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Biosphere Reserve): A. Simlipal B. Nokrek C. Agasthyamalai D. Manas List-II (State): 1. Kerala 2. Odisha 3. Assam 4. Meghalaya Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
    2. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
    3. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
    4. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

    Explanation

    Simlipal - Odisha; Nokrek - Meghalaya; Agasthyamalai - Kerala (and TN); Manas - Assam.

  11. Q11Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Scientific investigation depends on commitment to practical ideals. 2. Honesty is particularly important in science. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.
    2. Both statements 1 and 2 are incorrect.
    3. Statement 1 is correct, 2 is not correct.
    4. Statement 1 is correct, 2 is unpredictable.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct.

    Explanation

    Science rests on commitment to ideals such as objectivity and verification, and honesty in reporting data is essential to its credibility.

  12. Q12Open question

    Which of the following is the correct order of plant classification from higher to lower rank?

    1. Class - Phylum - Order - Plant Kingdom
    2. Order - Class - Phylum - Plant Kingdom
    3. Class - Plant Kingdom - Phylum - Order
    4. Plant Kingdom - Phylum - Class - Order
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Plant Kingdom - Phylum - Class - Order

    Explanation

    The taxonomic hierarchy runs Kingdom > Phylum/Division > Class > Order > Family > Genus > Species.

  13. Q13Open question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Justice Party: 1. The Justice Party opposed Congress by calling it a Brahmin dominated organisation. 2. It claimed the same communal representation for non-Brahmins as the Morley-Minto reforms had given to Muslims. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Only 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    The Justice Party (1916, Madras) attacked the Congress as Brahmin-dominated and demanded separate/communal representation for non-Brahmins like that given to Muslims in 1909.

  14. Q14Open question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Workers and Peasants Party: 1. The Workers and Peasants Party was formed in 1927 and was given the form of an All India Organisation. 2. The objective of this party was to work within the Congress so that it could be made a more revolution inclined party and an organisation of the common people. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Only 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Provincial WPPs of 1925-27 were brought together as an all-India party (1927-28), working within the Congress to radicalise it. (The all-India conference was in December 1928; verify with the official key.)

  15. Q15Open question

    Consider the following and arrange them in chronological order: 1. East India Association 2. National Indian Association 3. Indian Society 4. Indian Association Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1, 2, 4, 3
    2. 1, 3, 2, 4
    3. 2, 1, 4, 3
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3, 4

    Explanation

    East India Association (1866), National Indian Association (1870, Mary Carpenter), Indian Society (1872, London), Indian Association (1876, Calcutta).

  16. Q16Open question

    Consider the following events and arrange them in correct chronological order starting from the earliest: 1. Royal Indian Navy Revolt 2. Announcement of Cabinet Mission 3. Formation of Interim Government 4. Arrival of a UK Parliamentary Delegation in Delhi Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 4, 3, 2, 1
    2. 4, 1, 2, 3
    3. 4, 2, 1, 3
    4. 2, 4, 1, 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 4, 1, 2, 3

    Explanation

    UK parliamentary delegation (January 1946), RIN revolt (18 February 1946), Cabinet Mission announced (19 February 1946), Interim Government (2 September 1946).

  17. Q17Open question

    With reference to the Age of Consent Act, 1891, consider the following statements: 1. It was Behramji Malabari, a Parsi reformer from Bombay, who advocated for this legislation. 2. The Act was supported by the extremist wing led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only 1

    Explanation

    Malabari campaigned for the Act, but Tilak opposed it as interference in Hindu social customs.

  18. Q18Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Shivaji had to face opposition from the big Deshmukhs. Reason (R): These Deshmukhs were not in favour of an independent Maratha State and wanted to remain as feudal lords of Bijapur. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    Powerful Deshmukhs such as the Mores of Javli preferred to remain Bijapur's vassals, so they opposed Shivaji's independent state.

  19. Q19Open question

    Which of the following reasons caused catastrophic coral bleaching and mass coral deaths in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands?

    1. Increased industrial activities in the coastal regions
    2. Increase of 2 degrees C temperature in the Indian Ocean
    3. Heavy marine pollution
    4. Decrease of temperature by 4 degrees C in the Indian Ocean
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Increase of 2 degrees C temperature in the Indian Ocean

    Explanation

    The 2024 mass bleaching was caused by a marine heatwave that raised sea-surface temperatures about 2 degrees C above normal.

  20. Q20Open question

    Consider the following statements with respect to Ashoka: 1. The definition of Dhamma given by Ashoka is taken from 'Rahulovada-sutta'. 2. In the 14th year of his coronation, Ashoka appointed a new type of staff, called Dhamma-mahamatras. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Only 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Scholars trace Ashoka's Dhamma to Buddhist texts such as the Rahulovada sutta; Rock Edict V says Dhamma-mahamatras were created 13 years after consecration, i.e. in the 14th year. (Verify with the official key.)

  21. Q21Open question

    Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

    1. Article 153 - Office of the Governor
    2. Article 154 - Executive Authority of the Governor
    3. Article 155 - Removal of the Governor
    4. Article 156 - Term of the Governor
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Article 155 - Removal of the Governor

    Explanation

    Article 155 deals with the appointment of the Governor, not removal; Article 156 covers term of office.

  22. Q22Open question

    Which of the following is/are stated in the Constitution of India? 1. The President shall not be a member of either of the Houses of the Parliament. 2. The Parliament shall consist of the President and both Houses. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Only 2
    3. Neither 1 nor 2
    4. Only 1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Article 59(1) bars the President from being a member of either House, and Article 79 says Parliament consists of the President and the two Houses.

  23. Q23Open question

    An Amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by the: 1. Lok Sabha 2. Rajya Sabha 3. State Legislatures 4. President of India Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 2
    3. Only 1
    4. 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Under Article 368 an amendment Bill can be introduced only in either House of Parliament; states and the President cannot initiate it.

  24. Q24Open question

    Which of the following are the functions of the Election Commission of India? 1. Conduct of elections for the posts of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Conduct of elections of the Municipal Corporations and Municipalities. 3. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising out of the above elections. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 1 and 3
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None of the above

    Explanation

    Presiding officers are elected by the Houses themselves, and local body polls are run by State Election Commissions; none is an ECI function.

  25. Q25Open question

    Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched?

    1. G.V.K. Rao Committee - Planning at the Block Level
    2. Dantwala Committee - Rural Credit
    3. Santhanam Committee - Panchayati Raj Finances
    4. Ashok Mehta Committee - Panchayati Raj Institutions
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) G.V.K. Rao Committee - Planning at the Block Level

    Explanation

    Block-level planning was the Dantwala Committee (1978); G.V.K. Rao (1985) dealt with administrative arrangements for rural development. Dantwala also reviewed RRBs (rural credit) in 1977.

  26. Q26Open question

    Which of the following is the correct sequence of phases of biotic succession?

    1. Ecesis - Migration - Reaction - Stabilisation
    2. Ecesis - Migration - Stabilisation - Reaction
    3. Migration - Reaction - Stabilisation - Ecesis
    4. Migration - Ecesis - Reaction - Stabilisation
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Migration - Ecesis - Reaction - Stabilisation

    Explanation

    Succession goes nudation, migration, ecesis (establishment), aggregation/competition, reaction and stabilisation (climax).

  27. Q27Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Relative humidity decreases with increasing air temperature. Reason (R): Absolute humidity increases with increasing evaporation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    Warmer air can hold more moisture, so RH falls as temperature rises; more evaporation adds vapour, raising absolute humidity. Both true but unrelated.

  28. Q28Open question

    Which one of the following is correctly matched?

    1. Ecocline - Biodiversity
    2. Pycnocline - Sea water density
    3. Thermocline - Air temperature
    4. Halocline - Sea water temperature
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Pycnocline - Sea water density

    Explanation

    A pycnocline is a layer of rapid density change in the ocean; the thermocline relates to water temperature and the halocline to salinity.

  29. Q29Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Term): A. Planting Hearth B. Cryophyte Steppe C. World Floral Regions D. Puszta Grassland List-II (Associated with): 1. Hungary 2. Adolf Engler 3. C.O. Sauer 4. Arctic Tundra Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    2. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
    3. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    4. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1

    Explanation

    Carl Sauer proposed agricultural (planting) hearths; cryophyte steppe is Arctic tundra vegetation; Adolf Engler classified world floral regions; the Puszta is Hungary's grassland.

  30. Q30Open question

    Which one of the following pairs (Aluminium Plant - State) is NOT correctly matched?

    1. Alupuram (Alwaye) - Kerala
    2. Belagavi - Karnataka
    3. Muri - Chhattisgarh
    4. Hirakud - Odisha
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Muri - Chhattisgarh

    Explanation

    Muri (Hindalco's alumina refinery) is in Jharkhand, not Chhattisgarh.

  31. Q31Open question

    Which of the following pairs (National Park - State/UT) is NOT correctly matched?

    1. Rajaji - Uttarakhand
    2. Pin Valley - Jammu and Kashmir
    3. Bandipur - Karnataka
    4. Simlipal - Odisha
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Pin Valley - Jammu and Kashmir

    Explanation

    Pin Valley National Park is in Lahaul-Spiti, Himachal Pradesh.

  32. Q32Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The Himalayas are still rising. Reason (R): The Indian tectonic plate is colliding with the Eurasian plate. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    The continuing northward push of the Indian plate into Eurasia keeps uplifting the Himalayas.

  33. Q33Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Coal Resources): A. Hutar B. Ib River C. Tatapani-Ramkola D. Umaria List-II (States): 1. Madhya Pradesh 2. Chhattisgarh 3. Odisha 4. Jharkhand Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
    2. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
    3. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    4. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

    Explanation

    Hutar - Jharkhand; Ib River - Odisha; Tatapani-Ramkola - Chhattisgarh; Umaria - Madhya Pradesh.

  34. Q34Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Canals): A. Upper Bari Doab Canal B. Sirhind Canal C. Gurgaon Canal D. Indira Gandhi Canal List-II (Rivers): 1. Sutlej 2. Yamuna 3. Sutlej, Ravi, Beas 4. Ravi Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
    2. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
    3. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
    4. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

    Explanation

    UBDC is fed by the Ravi (Madhopur); Sirhind Canal by the Sutlej (Ropar); Gurgaon Canal by the Yamuna; the Indira Gandhi Canal draws Sutlej-Beas (and Ravi via link) water from Harike.

  35. Q35Open question

    Which one of the following pairs (Crop - Peculiarity) is NOT correctly matched?

    1. State where rice is grown three times in a year - West Bengal
    2. Bihar's contribution to rice production - 15.7%
    3. State with largest area under rice production - Uttar Pradesh
    4. Isohyets that decide western limit of rice production - 100 cm
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Bihar's contribution to rice production - 15.7%

    Explanation

    Bihar's share of national rice output is only about 5-6%, not 15.7%. West Bengal grows aus, aman and boro; UP has the largest rice area in recent years; the 100 cm isohyet marks rice's western limit.

  36. Q36Open question

    Consider the following statements with reference to cotton crops: 1. Cotton is mostly a Kharif crop. 2. Cotton crop requires moderate amounts of rainfall varying between 50-75 cm annually. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Only 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Cotton is sown in the kharif season and grows best with 50-75 cm (up to ~100 cm) rainfall, high temperature and frost-free days.

  37. Q37Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Red soil denotes the second largest soil group of India. Reason (R): Red soil surrounds the black soil in the south, east and north directions. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    Red soils cover about 18% of India, second after alluvial soils, and fringe the black-soil region on the south, east and north. Both true, but R does not explain A.

  38. Q38Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Name of the City): A. Kanchipuram B. Jaisalmer C. Kodaikanal D. Bhilai List-II (Period of being Planned): 1. Post-independence 2. Colonial Period 3. Medieval Period 4. Ancient Period Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
    2. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    3. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    4. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

    Explanation

    Kanchipuram is ancient, Jaisalmer medieval (1156), Kodaikanal a colonial hill station and Bhilai a post-independence steel town.

  39. Q39Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Famous Local Storm): A. Mango shower B. Blossom shower C. Norwesters D. Loo List-II (Place/Area): 1. Punjab to Bihar 2. Kerala 3. Karnataka Coastal Areas 4. West Bengal Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
    2. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
    3. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
    4. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

    Explanation

    Mango showers occur along the Kerala-Karnataka coast, blossom (coffee) showers in Kerala/Karnataka, Norwesters (Kalbaisakhi) in West Bengal and Loo over the northern plains from Punjab to Bihar.

  40. Q40Open question

    Which of the following pairs (Capital - Country) is NOT correctly matched?

    1. Naypyidaw - Myanmar
    2. Khartoum - Ethiopia
    3. Dublin - Ireland
    4. Ottawa - Canada
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Khartoum - Ethiopia

    Explanation

    Khartoum is the capital of Sudan; Ethiopia's capital is Addis Ababa.

  41. Q41Open question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Upper Gangetic agro-climatic region: 1. This region encompasses central and western Uttar Pradesh. 2. This region has more than 130% irrigation intensity and 140% cropping intensity. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Only 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Planning Commission's Upper Gangetic Plains region covers central and western UP, with irrigation intensity of about 131% and cropping intensity of about 144%.

  42. Q42Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Pass): A. Debsa B. Rohtang C. Bara-lacha D. Banihal List-II (Height from Sea Level): 1. 5360 metres 2. 4850 metres 3. 3978 metres 4. 2832 metres Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
    2. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
    3. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
    4. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

    Explanation

    Debsa ~5360 m, Rohtang ~3978 m, Bara-lacha La ~4850 m, Banihal ~2832 m.

  43. Q43Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Jute is an indigenous plant of India. Reason (R): Jute is a Kharif crop sown from February to June and harvested from July to October. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    Jute is native to the Indian subcontinent (Bengal delta), and is sown in spring (Feb-June) and harvested July-October. Both true, but R does not explain A.

  44. Q44Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Essayist): A. Devana Bhatta B. Hemadri C. Madhvacharya D. Ballal Sen List-II (Treatise): 1. Dan Sagar 2. Parashar Madhav 3. Chaturvarga Chintamani 4. Smriti Chandrika Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
    2. A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
    3. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
    4. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

    Explanation

    Devanabhatta - Smriti Chandrika; Hemadri - Chaturvarga Chintamani; Madhavacharya - Parashara Madhaviya; Ballala Sena - Dana Sagara.

  45. Q45Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Turkish invasion on India was successful. Reason (R): There was no political unity in North India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    Political fragmentation among Rajput kingdoms prevented a united defence, a key reason for Turkish success.

  46. Q46Open question

    Consider the following statements regarding Voice of Global South Summit (VOGSS): 1. India recently concluded its 2nd Voice of Global South Summit. 2. The term Global South is related to developed countries. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only 1

    Explanation

    India hosted the 2nd VOGSS in November 2023 (a 3rd followed in August 2024). 'Global South' refers to developing countries, so statement 2 is wrong.

  47. Q47Open question

    What does the Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC) emphasize regarding reductions in greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions? 1. Gradual and limited reductions are enough. 2. Deep, rapid and sustained reductions are essential. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Only 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Only 2

    Explanation

    IPCC AR6 stresses deep, rapid and sustained emission cuts to limit warming to 1.5-2 degrees C.

  48. Q48Open question

    What does the term 'Cereal Yield' refer to? 1. The amount of cereal crops produced per unit area of harvested land 2. The total production of cereal crops in a given country Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Only 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only 1

    Explanation

    Yield is output per unit area (e.g. kg per hectare), not total production.

  49. Q49Open question

    Which of the following statements is true regarding the trend of unemployment rate in India between July-September 2019 and July-September 2022? 1. It remained the same. 2. It declined. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. 2 is true and 1 is false.
    2. Both 1 and 2 are false.
    3. 1 is true and 2 is false.
    4. Both 1 and 2 are true.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2 is true and 1 is false.

    Explanation

    PLFS quarterly urban unemployment fell from about 8.4% (Jul-Sep 2019) to 7.2% (Jul-Sep 2022).

  50. Q50Open question

    Who prepares/publishes the Global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) report? 1. World Bank and International Monetary Fund (IMF) 2. Oxford Poverty and World Health Organisation (WHO) 3. Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI) 4. United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. 2 and 4
    2. Only 4
    3. 1 and 4
    4. 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 3 and 4

    Explanation

    The global MPI is published jointly by OPHI and UNDP.

  51. Q51Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The concept of Sustainable Development was popularised by the Brundtland Report. Reason (R): The Brundtland Report is also known as 'The Limits to Growth'. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) (A) is true, but (R) is false

    Explanation

    The Brundtland Report (1987) is 'Our Common Future'; 'The Limits to Growth' (1972) was a Club of Rome report.

  52. Q52Open question

    Consider the following days and arrange them in chronological order: 1. World Heritage Day 2. World Thyroid Day 3. World No Tobacco Day 4. International Day of Light Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 3, 1, 2, 4
    2. 1, 4, 2, 3
    3. 2, 3, 1, 4
    4. 4, 2, 3, 1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1, 4, 2, 3

    Explanation

    World Heritage Day 18 April, International Day of Light 16 May, World Thyroid Day 25 May, World No Tobacco Day 31 May.

  53. Q53Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Person): A. Gopi Thotakura B. Dipa Karmakar C. Aroh Barjatya D. Dev Patel List-II (Reason): 1. First Indian gymnast to win gold at Asian Championship 2. Indian-born NASA scientist who led the team to study solar eclipse impact on ionosphere 3. First Indian space tourist 4. British actor who made his directorial debut with thriller 'Monkey Man' Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
    2. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
    3. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
    4. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4

    Explanation

    Gopi Thotakura flew on Blue Origin NS-25 (first Indian space tourist); Dipa Karmakar won vault gold at the 2024 Asian Championships; Aroh Barjatya led NASA's APEP eclipse study; Dev Patel directed Monkey Man.

  54. Q54Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): During 2023-24, Singapore emerged as the largest source of FDI to India. Reason (R): The India-Mauritius Tax Treaty amendment has brought a major shift in countries as major sources of FDI to India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    Singapore was the top FDI source in 2023-24. The 2016 amendment to the India-Mauritius DTAA removed capital-gains benefits and shifted routing to Singapore. (Verify with the official key.)

  55. Q55Open question

    What is R21/Matrix-M?

    1. Vaccine against Malaria developed by Serum Institute of India
    2. Vaccine against Malaria developed by Bharat Biotech International
    3. Vaccine against AIDS developed by Serum Institute of India
    4. Vaccine against AIDS developed by Bharat Biotech International
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Vaccine against Malaria developed by Serum Institute of India

    Explanation

    R21/Matrix-M is a WHO-recommended malaria vaccine developed by Oxford University and manufactured by Serum Institute of India.

  56. Q56Open question

    Who among the following won the best actress award in the Un Certain Regard category of the Cannes Film Festival, 2024?

    1. Kiara Advani
    2. Anasuya Sengupta
    3. Urvashi Rautela
    4. Sobhita Dhulipala
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Anasuya Sengupta

    Explanation

    Anasuya Sengupta won best actress in Un Certain Regard for 'The Shameless', the first Indian to do so.

  57. Q57Open question

    With reference to RudraM-II Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is an air-to-air missile. 2. It was tested in Rajasthan in May 2024. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Neither 1 nor 2

    Explanation

    RudraM-II is an air-to-surface missile, test-fired from a Su-30MKI off the Odisha coast on 29 May 2024.

  58. Q58Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Newly Elected Head of the State): A. Gitanas Nauseda B. Luong Cuong C. Halla Tomasdottir D. Jose Raul Mulino List-II (Country): 1. Iceland 2. Vietnam 3. Lithuania 4. Panama Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
    2. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
    3. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
    4. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

    Explanation

    Nauseda - Lithuania; Luong Cuong - Vietnam; Halla Tomasdottir - Iceland; Jose Raul Mulino - Panama.

  59. Q59Open question

    Which one of the following pairs (Deccan Trap - peculiarity) is NOT correctly matched?

    1. Depth of middle trap - 1200 metres approximately
    2. Intertrappean beds - Fossils of sea plants and animals
    3. Depth of lower trap - 150 metres approximately
    4. Depth of upper trap - 450 metres approximately
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Intertrappean beds - Fossils of sea plants and animals

    Explanation

    Intertrappean beds are freshwater lake deposits with fossils of freshwater plants and animals, not marine ones.

  60. Q60Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Jet streams discovered during World War II are high altitude easterly winds. Reason (R): Jet streams flow with a speed of 300-500 km/hour. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) (A) is false, but (R) is true

    Explanation

    Jet streams (noticed by WWII pilots) are mainly high-altitude westerlies, so A is false; they can reach speeds of about 300-500 km/h.

  61. Q61Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Country): A. Spain - France B. Switzerland C. Bulgaria D. Italy List-II (Mountain): 1. Alps 2. Apennine 3. Pyrenees 4. Balkan Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
    2. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
    3. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
    4. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

    Explanation

    Pyrenees separate Spain and France; the Alps are in Switzerland; the Balkan Mountains in Bulgaria; the Apennines in Italy.

  62. Q62Open question

    Plants and animals that live on land are called:

    1. Abiotic
    2. Aquatic habitants
    3. Terrestrial habitants
    4. Biotic
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Terrestrial habitants

    Explanation

    Organisms living on land are terrestrial.

  63. Q63Open question

    The joint where the neck joins the head is:

    1. Pivotal joint
    2. Saddle joint
    3. Hinge joint
    4. Ball and socket joint
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Pivotal joint

    Explanation

    The atlas-axis joint is a pivot joint that allows the head to rotate.

  64. Q64Open question

    The disease-causing microorganism among these is:

    1. Archaea
    2. Pathogens
    3. Bacteria
    4. Protozoa
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Pathogens

    Explanation

    'Pathogen' is the general term for any disease-causing microorganism; bacteria, protozoa and archaea include many harmless forms.

  65. Q65Open question

    Milk is an example of:

    1. Foam
    2. Sol
    3. Aerosol
    4. Emulsion
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Emulsion

    Explanation

    Milk is an emulsion of fat droplets dispersed in water.

  66. Q66Open question

    The formula of baking soda is:

    1. KHCO3
    2. Na2CO3
    3. K2CO3
    4. NaHCO3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) NaHCO3

    Explanation

    Baking soda is sodium hydrogen carbonate, NaHCO3.

  67. Q67Open question

    CPR stands for:

    1. Cardio Programme Rescue
    2. Cardiac Pulsatile Revision
    3. Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation
    4. Cardiopulmonary Revision
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation

    Explanation

    CPR = Cardiopulmonary Resuscitation.

  68. Q68Open question

    The only vein that carries oxygenated blood is:

    1. Pulmonary vein
    2. Cystic vein
    3. Cardiac vein
    4. Hepatic Portal vein
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Pulmonary vein

    Explanation

    Pulmonary veins bring oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium.

  69. Q69Open question

    Diabetes is the most common disorder associated with:

    1. Kidney
    2. Gall bladder
    3. Liver
    4. Pancreas
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Pancreas

    Explanation

    Diabetes mellitus results from inadequate insulin from the pancreatic beta cells or resistance to it.

  70. Q70Open question

    The recent global pause during the COVID-19 pandemic was caused due to:

    1. SARS-CoV-1
    2. H5N1
    3. SARS-CoV-2
    4. MERS-CoV-2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) SARS-CoV-2

    Explanation

    COVID-19 is caused by the SARS-CoV-2 coronavirus.

  71. Q71Open question

    A bus covers the first half of a certain distance with speed v1 and the second half with a speed v2. The average speed during the whole journey is:

    1. v1v2 / (v1 + v2)
    2. 2v1v2 / (v1 + v2)
    3. (v1 + v2) / 2
    4. sqrt(v1v2)
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2v1v2 / (v1 + v2)

    Explanation

    Average speed = total distance / total time = 2d / (d/v1 + d/v2) = 2v1v2/(v1 + v2), the harmonic mean.

  72. Q72Open question

    Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched regarding peculiarities of the Ramganga project?

    1. Dam's length - 825.8 metres
    2. Hydropower generation capacity - 198 MW
    3. Location - Garhwal (Uttarakhand)
    4. Irrigated area - 6 lac hectares
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Dam's length - 825.8 metres

    Explanation

    The Ramganga (Kalagarh) dam is about 625.8 m long, not 825.8 m. It generates 198 MW and is in Pauri Garhwal.

  73. Q73Open question

    Consider the following statements with reference to cultivated area of some countries of the world: 1. In comparison to USA, China and Japan, India has highest geographical area under cultivation. 2. India's location in tropical monsoon region helps diversified cropping all through the year. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Only 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    India's net sown area (~140 million ha, over half its land) is among the world's largest, and its tropical monsoon climate allows cropping in all seasons. (US arable area is comparable; verify with the official key.)

  74. Q74Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Place): A. Devprayag B. Rudraprayag C. Karnaprayag D. Tehri List-II (Confluencing Rivers): 1. Alaknanda and Pindar 2. Alaknanda and Bhagirathi 3. Bhagirathi and Bhilangna 4. Alaknanda and Mandakini Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
    2. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
    3. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
    4. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

    Explanation

    Devprayag - Alaknanda + Bhagirathi; Rudraprayag - Alaknanda + Mandakini; Karnaprayag - Alaknanda + Pindar; Tehri - Bhagirathi + Bhilangna.

  75. Q75Open question

    Consider the following statements with respect to the climate of Western Europe: 1. Western Europe receives rainfall in all months. 2. Western Europe is located in the belt of Westerlies. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Only 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    The West European (marine west coast) climate lies in the westerly belt and gets rain throughout the year.

  76. Q76Open question

    Consider the following mountains and arrange them in correct order from West to East by their location: 1. Karakoram 2. Pontic 3. Hindu Kush 4. Zagros Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 2, 4, 3, 1
    2. 2, 3, 4, 1
    3. 4, 2, 3, 1
    4. 4, 1, 2, 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2, 4, 3, 1

    Explanation

    Pontic (northern Turkey) lies furthest west, then Zagros (Iran), Hindu Kush (Afghanistan) and Karakoram.

  77. Q77Open question

    Which one of the following pairs (River - Direction of flow) is NOT correctly matched?

    1. Amur river - North-East
    2. Syr Darya - North-West
    3. Angara river - North
    4. Mekong river - South-West
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Mekong river - South-West

    Explanation

    The Mekong flows generally south/south-east to the South China Sea.

  78. Q78Open question

    Which one of the following pairs (Country - Oil field) is NOT correctly matched?

    1. Iran - Haft Kel
    2. Kuwait - Kashagan
    3. Saudi Arabia - Dhahran
    4. Iraq - Zubair
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Kuwait - Kashagan

    Explanation

    Kashagan is a giant Caspian oilfield in Kazakhstan; Kuwait's major field is Burgan.

  79. Q79Open question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Mediterranean climate: 1. It receives rainfall in winter season. 2. Due to winter solstice, air pressure belts shift to the South. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    In the northern winter the pressure belts shift south, bringing westerlies and winter rain to Mediterranean lands.

  80. Q80Open question

    With reference to the Anti-Maoist operation that took place in April 2024, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It took place in Gadchiroli district of Maharashtra. 2. The operation was launched by BSF and District Reserve Guards. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only 2

    Explanation

    The 16 April 2024 encounter (29 Maoists killed) was in Kanker district, Chhattisgarh, carried out by the BSF and DRG.

  81. Q81Open question

    With reference to 'PraVaHa' software developed by ISRO, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a path-breaking feat by Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre. 2. Initial aerodynamic design of space vehicles requires evaluation of large number of configurations. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    VSSC developed PraVaHa, a CFD tool to simulate airflow and evaluate the many configurations needed in aerodynamic design.

  82. Q82Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): In April 2024, India delivered the BrahMos Supersonic Cruise Missile to the Philippines. Reason (R): The missile has a range of 490 kilometres. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) (A) is true, but (R) is false

    Explanation

    The first BrahMos batteries reached the Philippines in April 2024, but the export variant's range is about 290 km.

  83. Q87Open question

    With reference to 'Nepal-India International Sanskrit Conclave - 2024', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It was held at New Delhi. 2. This three-day conclave was organised by the Niti Anusandhan Pratisthan. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only 2

    Explanation

    The conclave was held in Kathmandu, Nepal, organised by Niti Anusandhan Pratisthan with Indian support.

  84. Q88Open question

    With reference to 'Lunar Polar Exploration Mission' (LUPEX), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. This is an India-Japan partnership for their joint moon mission which shall be launched in the future. 2. JAXA is responsible for developing the lander for the mission, while ISRO is handling the rover and launch vehicle. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only 1

    Explanation

    LUPEX (Chandrayaan-5) is an ISRO-JAXA mission. JAXA provides the rover and H3 launch vehicle, while ISRO builds the lander.

  85. Q89Open question

    With reference to 'Guidelines for Elimination of Corporal Punishment' (GECP), which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. The Tamil Nadu School Education Department issued these guidelines on 26th April, 2024. 2. These guidelines are focussed on safeguarding the physical and mental well-being of students. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Tamil Nadu's School Education Department issued the GECP in April 2024 to protect students' physical and mental well-being.

  86. Q90Open question

    With reference to 'FLY91', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. It is a newly launched airline in India. 2. Its inaugural flight took off from Manohar International Airport on 18th March, 2024. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Goa-based regional airline FLY91 began operations on 18 March 2024 from Manohar International Airport (Mopa) to Bengaluru.

  87. Q91Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Yojana Name): A. Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Gramin B. Jal Jeevan Mission C. Swachh Bharat Mission - Gramin D. Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana List-II (Date of Launch): 1. May, 2016 2. October, 2014 3. August, 2019 4. November, 2016 Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
    2. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    3. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    4. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1

    Explanation

    PMAY-G: 20 Nov 2016; JJM: 15 Aug 2019; SBM-G: 2 Oct 2014; PMUY: 1 May 2016.

  88. Q92Open question

    Which indicators are used in the Human Development Index (HDI)? 1. Income level 2. Education 3. Condition of environment 4. Life expectancy Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Only 1, 2 and 3
    2. Only 1 and 4
    3. Only 1, 2 and 4
    4. Only 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only 1, 2 and 4

    Explanation

    HDI combines life expectancy, education (mean and expected years of schooling) and GNI per capita.

  89. Q93Open question

    Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order: 1. Swachh Bharat Mission 2. Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 3. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana 4. Pradhan Mantri Mahila Shakti Kendra Scheme Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 2, 1, 4, 3
    2. 4, 2, 1, 3
    3. 1, 2, 3, 4
    4. 3, 1, 2, 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3, 4

    Explanation

    SBM (Oct 2014), PMKVY (July 2015), PM Garib Kalyan Yojana (Dec 2016) and Mahila Shakti Kendra (Nov 2017).

  90. Q94Open question

    Malthus argued that the population grows in a ______ progression, while agricultural production/food supply grows in a ______ progression.

    1. Linear, Exponential
    2. Exponential, Linear
    3. Arithmetic, Geometric
    4. Geometric, Arithmetic
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Geometric, Arithmetic

    Explanation

    Malthus (1798): population grows geometrically (1, 2, 4, 8...) and food arithmetically (1, 2, 3, 4...).

  91. Q95Open question

    According to the Economic Survey 2022-23, what fiscal policy response did the Government of India undertake in response to the aggravated global supply disruptions? 1. Decreasing food and fertiliser subsidies 2. Increasing taxes on fuel and imported products 3. Reducing taxes on fuel and certain imported products Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Only 3
    2. Only 1
    3. Only 2
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only 3

    Explanation

    The government cut excise duty on petrol/diesel and customs duties on some imports, and raised (not cut) food and fertiliser subsidies.

  92. Q96Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Social Security Programme): A. Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-Dhan Yojana B. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana C. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana D. Atal Pension Yojana List-II (Beneficiary's Contribution): 1. Beneficiary's choice 2. Rs 55 - Rs 200 per month 3. Rs 436 per year 4. Rs 20 per year Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
    2. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
    3. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    4. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

    Explanation

    PM-SYM: Rs 55-200/month by age; PMJJBY: Rs 436/year; PMSBY: Rs 20/year; APY: contribution depends on the pension amount chosen.

  93. Q97Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Development is being defined as improving living standards and welfare. Reason (R): Growth in per capita income is not a sufficient measure of development. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    Because income growth alone ignores health, education and welfare, development is defined more broadly as improved living standards.

  94. Q98Open question

    Which measures are essential to achieve Goal 4 of the Sustainable Development Targets, 2030? 1. Making education free and compulsory 2. Improving basic school infrastructure and embracing digital transformation 3. Expansion of agricultural programmes 4. Increasing investment in technology Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    3. Only 1
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2

    Explanation

    SDG 4 (quality education) calls for free universal schooling and better, digitally enabled school infrastructure.

  95. Q99Open question

    Which of the following freedoms is NOT guaranteed by the Indian Constitution under Article 19?

    1. Freedom to assemble peacefully and without arms
    2. Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property
    3. Freedom to move freely throughout the country
    4. Freedom to practise any trade or profession
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Freedom to own, acquire and dispose of property

    Explanation

    Article 19(1)(f) on property was deleted by the 44th Amendment (1978); property is now a legal right under Article 300A.

  96. Q100Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): According to the Constitution of India, the same person cannot function as the Governor of two or more States at the same time. Reason (R): Article 153 of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a Governor for each State. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) (A) is false, but (R) is true

    Explanation

    The 7th Amendment (1956) added a proviso to Article 153 allowing one person to be Governor of two or more states; so A is false.

  97. Q101Open question

    Which one of the following pairs is NOT correctly matched?

    1. Equality before law - Guaranteed to both citizens and non-citizens
    2. Equality of opportunity in public employment - Guaranteed only to Indian citizens
    3. Creating a new State - Power of Parliament
    4. Altering the name of a State - Power of a State Legislature
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Altering the name of a State - Power of a State Legislature

    Explanation

    Under Article 3, Parliament (not the state legislature) alters a state's name; the state legislature only gives its views.

  98. Q102Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Subject): A. Consolidated Fund of India B. Finance Commission C. Financial Emergency D. Comptroller and Auditor General of India List-II (Article): 1. Article 266 2. Article 360 3. Article 280 4. Article 148 Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
    2. A-4, B-1, C-3, D-2
    3. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
    4. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

    Explanation

    Consolidated Fund - Art. 266; Finance Commission - Art. 280; Financial Emergency - Art. 360; CAG - Art. 148.

  99. Q103Open question

    Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? 1. Abolition of untouchability 2. Prohibition of human trafficking and forced labour 3. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines 4. Protection of interests of minorities Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. 2 and 3
    2. 3 and 4
    3. 1 and 2
    4. 1 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2 and 3

    Explanation

    Articles 23 (trafficking, forced labour) and 24 (child labour in hazardous work) form the Right against Exploitation; untouchability is Art. 17 and minorities Art. 29-30.

  100. Q104Open question

    Which one of the following groups has only input devices?

    1. Mouse, Keyboard, Printer
    2. Mouse, Keyboard, Projector
    3. Mouse, Keyboard, Monitor
    4. Mouse, Keyboard, Scanner
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Mouse, Keyboard, Scanner

    Explanation

    Mouse, keyboard and scanner are input devices; printers, projectors and monitors are output devices.

  101. Q105Open question

    The content of computer memory which is non-volatile, even when the power goes off, is:

    1. REM
    2. RAM
    3. ROM
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) ROM

    Explanation

    ROM retains data without power; RAM is volatile.

  102. Q106Open question

    Which of the following is a correct relationship between Fahrenheit (F) and Celsius (C) degrees?

    1. C = (9/5)F + 32
    2. C = F - 273.15
    3. F = (9/5)C + 32
    4. F = C - 273.15
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) F = (9/5)C + 32

    Explanation

    F = (9/5)C + 32; for example 100 C = 212 F.

  103. Q107Open question

    Which of the following statements is NOT true?

    1. Chromosomes are composed of DNA and protein.
    2. Nucleus of a cell does not play a role in cellular reproduction.
    3. Chromosomes contain information for inheritance.
    4. Functional segment of DNA is called gene.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Nucleus of a cell does not play a role in cellular reproduction.

    Explanation

    The nucleus carries the genetic material and directs cell division, so it is central to cellular reproduction.

  104. Q108Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): CO2, SO2 and NO2 gases get dissolved in rain water and produce acid rain. Reason (R): Atmospheric air is polluted due to high concentration of gases like carbon dioxide, sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    Both statements are true; R describes air pollution in general but does not explain the chemistry of acid formation stated in A. (Some keys accept 'a'; verify.)

  105. Q109Open question

    With reference to the 7th India-Indonesia Joint Defence Cooperation Committee meeting, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. In this meeting Indonesia agreed to enhance collaboration in the areas of defence industry, maritime security and multilateral cooperation. 2. This meeting was held at Jakarta on May 5, 2024. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only 1

    Explanation

    The 7th JDCC meeting was held in New Delhi in May 2024 and agreed to deepen cooperation in defence industry, maritime security and multilateral fora.

  106. Q110Open question

    With reference to 'FWD 200B', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. This is India's first indigenous bomber UAV aircraft. 2. Its payload capacity is 100 kg. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Flying Wedge Defence's FWD-200B, unveiled in 2024, is billed as India's first indigenous bomber UAV with about 100 kg payload.

  107. Q111Open question

    With reference to 'India-Australia Economic Co-operation and Trade Agreement (Ind-Aus ECTA)', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. This is a first-of-its-kind initiative of FTAs. 2. The meeting was attended by the Commerce Secretary of India, Shri Sunil Barthwal. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    The first Ind-Aus ECTA Joint Committee meeting (2024), attended by Commerce Secretary Sunil Barthwal, was described as a first-of-its-kind review mechanism. (Verify with the official key.)

  108. Q112Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Joint Exercise): A. India-Uzbekistan Joint Military Exercise 'DUSTLIK' B. India-France Joint Military Exercise 'SHAKTI' C. Harbour phase of Indo-US Joint Exercise Tiger Triumph, 2024 D. MILAN, 2024 List-II (Dates): 1. February 19-27, 2024 2. May 13-26, 2024 3. April 15-28, 2024 4. March 18-25, 2024 Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    2. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
    3. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
    4. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

    Explanation

    DUSTLIK: 15-28 April 2024; SHAKTI: 13-26 May 2024; Tiger Triumph harbour phase: 18-25 March 2024; MILAN: 19-27 February 2024.

  109. Q113Open question

    With reference to 'Shaksgam Valley', which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. This valley is a strategic key region that is part of Pakistan-occupied Kashmir (PoK). 2. India has lodged protest against the infrastructural development being carried out by China in this valley. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only 2

    Explanation

    The Shaksgam (Trans-Karakoram) tract was ceded illegally by Pakistan to China in 1963 and is under Chinese control, not PoK; India protested China's road building there in 2024.

  110. Q114Open question

    Arrange the following schemes launched by the Government of India in chronological order: 1. Integrated Rural Development Programme 2. Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana 3. National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 4. Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1, 2, 3, 4
    2. 3, 4, 1, 2
    3. 2, 3, 4, 1
    4. 4, 3, 1, 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1, 2, 3, 4

    Explanation

    IRDP (1978-80), SGSY (1999), NREGA (2005), PMJDY (2014).

  111. Q115Open question

    With reference to economic growth, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Indian economy is an underdeveloped economy. 2. Indian economy is a mixed economy. 3. J.M. Keynes is the Father of Economics. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. Only 1 and 2 are correct.
    2. Only 3 is correct.
    3. Only 1 is correct.
    4. Only 2 and 3 are correct.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2 are correct.

    Explanation

    India is a mixed, developing economy; Adam Smith is the father of economics (Keynes is father of modern macroeconomics).

  112. Q116Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): The value of national currency determined by demand and supply of foreign currency is called flexible exchange rate. Reason (R): Demand and supply of the foreign currency is being determined by the Central Bank. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) (A) is true, but (R) is false

    Explanation

    Under a flexible regime, market forces set the rate. The central bank only intervenes; it does not determine demand and supply.

  113. Q117Open question

    With reference to India, consider the following events: 1. Nationalisation of Banks 2. Formation of Regional Rural Banks 3. Adoption of villages by Bank Branches Which of the above events can be considered as steps taken to achieve 'financial inclusion in India'?

    1. Only 2 and 3
    2. 1, 2 and 3
    3. Only 1 and 2
    4. Only 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    Bank nationalisation (1969), RRBs (1975) and village adoption / service area approach all extended banking to the unbanked.

  114. Q118Open question

    With reference to the 'National Food Security Act', which of the following statements are correct? 1. It will cover up to 75% rural and 50% urban population. 2. It has special focus on nutritional support to women and children. 3. It was enforced on July 5, 2010. Codes:

    1. 2 and 3 are correct.
    2. 1 and 3 are correct.
    3. 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
    4. 1 and 2 are correct.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1 and 2 are correct.

    Explanation

    NFSA 2013 covers up to 75% rural and 50% urban population with special provisions for women and children; it came into force on 5 July 2013, not 2010.

  115. Q119Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): There is a positive relationship between Human Development Index (HDI) and the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) ranking of Indian States. Reason (R): The underlying dimensions of SDG targets are closely related to education and health aspects. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    States with higher HDI generally score better on the SDG India Index because both depend heavily on health and education outcomes.

  116. Q120Open question

    Match List-I with List-II (rank as remittances received in 2022). List-I (Country): A. Mexico B. China C. India D. Philippines List-II (Rank): 1. First 2. Second 3. Third 4. Fourth Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
    2. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
    3. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
    4. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4

    Explanation

    World Bank data for 2022: India (~$111 bn) 1st, Mexico 2nd, China 3rd, Philippines 4th.

  117. Q121Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (State): A. Maharashtra B. Uttar Pradesh C. Tamil Nadu D. Karnataka List-II (Rank according to expenditure on infrastructure 2019-23): 1. First 2. Second 3. Third 4. Fourth Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    2. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
    3. A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3
    4. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4

    Explanation

    Reports on state capex for FY2019-23 placed Uttar Pradesh first, followed by Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka. (Low-confidence answer; verify with the official key.)

  118. Q122Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Article 352 of the Indian Constitution deals with the declaration of an emergency. Reason (R): An emergency may take place at any time. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    Article 352 covers National Emergency. An emergency situation can arise at any time, but that does not explain what the Article provides.

  119. Q123Open question

    Which of the following statements are correct regarding ICT-based e-Governance? 1. e-Governance reduces the transparency of Government. 2. e-Governance reduces the cost of Government. 3. e-Governance increases citizens' input into Government. 4. e-Governance increases bureaucratic red tapism. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. 2 and 4
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 and 3

    Explanation

    e-Governance improves transparency, cuts costs and red tape, and increases citizen participation.

  120. Q124Open question

    The UPSC derives its functions from which of the following sources? 1. The Constitution 2. Parliamentary Laws 3. Executive Rules and Orders 4. Conventions Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 1 and 3
    3. Only 1
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Article 320 lists UPSC's functions and Article 321 lets Parliament confer additional functions by law. (Some keys include executive rules; verify.)

  121. Q125Open question

    Which one of the following is correctly matched? (Constitutional Body - Article)

    1. Election Commission - 165
    2. National Commission for Scheduled Castes - 148
    3. Finance Commission - 263
    4. National Commission for Backward Classes - 340
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) National Commission for Backward Classes - 340

    Explanation

    Article 340 provides for a commission on backward classes (the NCBC is now under Art. 338B). EC is Art. 324, NCSC Art. 338, FC Art. 280.

  122. Q126Open question

    Identify the correct chronological sequence of the following: 1. Shankari Prasad vs. Union of India 2. Sajjan Singh vs. State of Rajasthan 3. Golaknath vs. State of Punjab 4. Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1, 4, 3, 2
    2. 3, 2, 1, 4
    3. 1, 2, 3, 4
    4. 3, 4, 2, 1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1, 2, 3, 4

    Explanation

    Shankari Prasad (1951), Sajjan Singh (1965), Golaknath (1967), Kesavananda Bharati (1973).

  123. Q127Open question

    Match the Amendments with their year of implementation. List-I (Amendment): A. 42nd Amendment B. 52nd Amendment C. 86th Amendment D. 96th Amendment List-II (Year): 1. 1985 2. 2011 3. 1976 4. 2002 Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
    2. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    3. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    4. A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

    Explanation

    42nd - 1976; 52nd (anti-defection) - 1985; 86th (RTE) - 2002; 96th (Odia spelling) - 2011.

  124. Q128Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Concept): A. Cooperative Federalism B. Bargaining Federalism C. Quasi Federalism D. Federalism with Centralising Tendency List-II (Scholar): 1. K.C. Wheare 2. Ivor Jennings 3. Morris-Jones 4. Granville Austin Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1
    2. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
    3. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
    4. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

    Explanation

    Granville Austin - cooperative federalism; Morris-Jones - bargaining federalism; K.C. Wheare - quasi-federal; Ivor Jennings - federation with a strong centralising tendency.

  125. Q129Open question

    Which one of the following is NOT a level in the three-tier Panchayati Raj recommended by the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee?

    1. Panchayat Samiti
    2. Gram Panchayat
    3. Zilla Parishad
    4. Nyaya Panchayat
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Nyaya Panchayat

    Explanation

    The three tiers were Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti and Zilla Parishad; Nyaya Panchayats are judicial bodies outside the scheme.

  126. Q130Open question

    According to the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013, the Lokpal is appointed by the President on the recommendations of a Selection Committee chaired by the Prime Minister and consisting, among others, of: 1. Chief Justice of India or a Supreme Court Judge nominated by him 2. Chairman of the Rajya Sabha 3. Speaker of the Lok Sabha 4. Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 2, 3 and 4
    3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    4. 1, 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 3 and 4

    Explanation

    The committee is PM, Lok Sabha Speaker, Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, CJI or nominated SC judge, and an eminent jurist; the Rajya Sabha Chairman is not a member.

  127. Q131Open question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Congress Socialist Party: 1. The Congress Socialist Party was formed in January 1934. 2. Jawaharlal Nehru formally joined this party due to his sympathy for socialism. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Only 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Neither 1 nor 2

    Explanation

    The CSP was founded in May 1934 at Patna (formally at Bombay in October 1934), and Nehru never formally joined it despite his sympathy.

  128. Q132Open question

    Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order: 1. Murder of Abul Fazl 2. Death of Sheikh Mubarak 3. Death of Faizi 4. Death of Daniyal Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 2, 1, 4, 3
    2. 3, 2, 1, 4
    3. 2, 3, 1, 4
    4. 2, 4, 3, 1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 2, 3, 1, 4

    Explanation

    Sheikh Mubarak died 1593, Faizi 1595, Abul Fazl was murdered 1602 and Prince Daniyal died 1605.

  129. Q133Open question

    Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order: 1. Linlithgow August Offer 2. Cripps Mission arrival in India 3. Ramgarh Congress Session 4. Resignation letters of Congress Ministers Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 3, 1, 4, 2
    2. 4, 3, 1, 2
    3. 1, 3, 4, 2
    4. 4, 2, 3, 1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 4, 3, 1, 2

    Explanation

    Congress ministries resigned (Oct-Nov 1939), Ramgarh session (March 1940), August Offer (August 1940), Cripps Mission (March 1942).

  130. Q134Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Book): A. Hindu Polity B. The Wonder That Was India C. An Introduction to the Study of Indian History D. The Early History of India List-II (Writer): 1. D.D. Kosambi 2. A.L. Basham 3. K.P. Jayaswal 4. Vincent Arthur Smith Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
    2. A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3
    3. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
    4. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

    Explanation

    Hindu Polity - K.P. Jayaswal; The Wonder That Was India - A.L. Basham; An Introduction to the Study of Indian History - D.D. Kosambi; The Early History of India - V.A. Smith.

  131. Q135Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Most of the early nationalists considered British rule as an act of providence destined to bring modernisation. Reason (R): They complained only against 'Un-British rule' in India. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    Moderates believed British rule was providential; so they criticised only its 'un-British' aspects, not the rule itself.

  132. Q136Open question

    Which one of the following statements is NOT correct about William A.J. Archbold?

    1. He was the Principal of Government College, Dacca.
    2. He was the Principal of Lahore College, Lahore.
    3. He was the Principal of MAO College, Aligarh.
    4. He was the Principal of the Muir Central College, Allahabad.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) He was the Principal of Lahore College, Lahore.

    Explanation

    Archbold was Principal of MAO College, Aligarh (1905-09) and later headed Dacca College and Muir Central College; he did not head a Lahore college. (Verify with the official key.)

  133. Q137Open question

    Consider the following events and arrange them in chronological order starting from the earliest: 1. Vellore Mutiny 2. Death of Nana Fadnavis 3. Recall of Wellesley 4. Anglo-Nepalese War Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 2, 3, 1, 4
    2. 4, 1, 3, 2
    3. 2, 3, 4, 1
    4. 3, 1, 2, 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2, 3, 1, 4

    Explanation

    Nana Fadnavis died 1800, Wellesley was recalled 1805, Vellore Mutiny 1806, Anglo-Nepal War 1814-16.

  134. Q138Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Revolt): A. Paika Revolt B. Bareilly Revolt C. Malabar Revolt D. Sylhet Revolt List-II (Leader): 1. Edachena Kungan 2. Radharam 3. Mufti Muhammad Aiwaz 4. Jagabandhu Bidyadhar Mahapatra Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2
    2. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    3. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
    4. A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) A-4, B-3, C-1, D-2

    Explanation

    Paika (1817) - Bakshi Jagabandhu; Bareilly (1816) - Mufti Muhammad Aiwaz; Malabar/Wayanad - Edachena Kunkan; Sylhet (1799) - Radharam.

  135. Q139Open question

    Consider the following days and arrange them in chronological order: 1. World Health Day 2. National Maritime Day 3. World Athletics Day 4. World Red Cross Day Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 4, 2, 3, 1
    2. 2, 1, 3, 4
    3. 2, 3, 4, 1
    4. 3, 2, 1, 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2, 1, 3, 4

    Explanation

    National Maritime Day 5 April, World Health Day 7 April, World Athletics Day 7 May, World Red Cross Day 8 May.

  136. Q140Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Award): A. Aryabhatta Award, 2024 B. World Literary Prize, 2024 C. Lata Deenanath Mangeshkar Award, 2024 D. Goldman Environmental Prize, 2024 List-II (Recipient): 1. Amitabh Bachchan 2. Mamta G. Sagar 3. Dr. Subba Rao Pavuluri 4. Alok Shukla Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
    2. A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
    3. A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
    4. A-2, B-3, C-1, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4

    Explanation

    Aryabhatta Award - Dr Subba Rao Pavuluri; World Literary Prize - Mamta G. Sagar; Lata Deenanath Mangeshkar Award - Amitabh Bachchan; Goldman Prize - Alok Shukla (Hasdeo forests).

  137. Q141Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Vitamin): A. Vitamin A B. Vitamin B C. Vitamin C D. Vitamin D List-II (Disease): 1. Beriberi 2. Blindness 3. Rickets 4. Scurvy Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    2. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
    3. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    4. A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

    Explanation

    Vitamin A - night blindness; B1 - beriberi; C - scurvy; D - rickets.

  138. Q142Open question

    Consider the following statements with reference to the Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities: 1. In the Constitution, there is a provision for the post of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities for every State. 2. A new Article 350B was added for this by the 9th Constitution Amendment Act. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Neither 1 nor 2

    Explanation

    Article 350B provides for one Special Officer appointed by the President (not one per state), and it was inserted by the 7th Amendment (1956).

  139. Q143Open question

    The Concurrent List of the Indian Constitution includes: 1. Trade and Commerce 2. Adulteration of Goods 3. Succession Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 3
    2. 1, 2 and 3
    3. Only 1
    4. 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    List III has succession (entry 5), adulteration of foodstuffs and other goods (entry 18) and trade and commerce in specified products (entry 33). General trade and commerce is a State subject, so some keys give 'd'; verify.

  140. Q144Open question

    Fathima Beevi died recently. Consider the following statements regarding her: 1. She was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court of India. 2. She served as the Governor of Kerala from 1997-2001. 3. She was the first Muslim woman to enter into higher judiciary. Select the correct answer from the codes given below.

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 1 and 3
    3. Only 1
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1 and 3

    Explanation

    Justice M. Fathima Beevi (d. Nov 2023) was the first woman SC judge and first Muslim woman in the higher judiciary; she was Governor of Tamil Nadu (1997-2001), not Kerala.

  141. Q145Open question

    With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements: 1. It reiterates India's commitment to Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement. 2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating Intellectual Property Rights in India. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    The 2016 National IPR Policy reaffirms commitment to the Doha agenda and TRIPS, and made DIPP (now DPIIT) the nodal agency.

  142. Q146Open question

    Which Amendment Acts deal with Local Governance Institutions in India?

    1. 63rd and 64th Amendment Acts
    2. 86th and 87th Amendment Acts
    3. 42nd and 43rd Amendment Acts
    4. 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts

    Explanation

    The 73rd (Panchayats) and 74th (Municipalities) Amendments of 1992 constitutionalised local government.

  143. Q147Open question

    Match List-I with List-II. List-I (Author): A. Lallanji Gopal B. Habib and Nizami C. K.S. Lal D. Dasharatha Sharma List-II (Book): 1. A Comprehensive History of India: The Delhi Sultanat 2. The Economic Life of Northern India 3. Early Chauhan Dynasties 4. History of the Khaljis Select the correct answer using the code given below the lists.

    1. A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
    2. A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
    3. A-4, B-3, C-2, D-1
    4. A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3

    Explanation

    Lallanji Gopal - Economic Life of Northern India; Habib and Nizami - Comprehensive History of India Vol. V; K.S. Lal - History of the Khaljis; Dasharatha Sharma - Early Chauhan Dynasties.

  144. Q148Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Kunwar Singh, landlord of Jagdishpur in Bihar, led the rebellion against the British. 2. Lord Dalhousie recognised the adopted son of Rani Lakshmi Bai as the heir apparent. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 2
    2. Neither 1 nor 2
    3. Only 1
    4. Both 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only 1

    Explanation

    Kunwar Singh led the 1857 revolt in Bihar; Dalhousie refused to recognise Damodar Rao and annexed Jhansi under the Doctrine of Lapse.

  145. Q149Open question

    Consider the following foreign travellers and arrange them in ascending chronological order: 1. I-Tsing 2. Al-Biruni 3. Huentsang (Hiuen Tsang) 4. Fahyan (Fa-Hien) Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. 1, 2, 3, 4
    2. 4, 3, 1, 2
    3. 2, 1, 4, 3
    4. 3, 4, 2, 1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 4, 3, 1, 2

    Explanation

    Fa-Hien (c. 399-414), Hiuen Tsang (629-645), I-Tsing (671-695), Al-Biruni (11th century).

  146. Q150Open question

    Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Assertion (A): Balban made his government firm and centralised all authority in his hands. Reason (R): He wanted to protect the north-west frontier against Mongol invasions. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
    2. (A) is false, but (R) is true
    3. Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
    4. (A) is true, but (R) is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

    Explanation

    Balban's 'blood and iron' centralisation was driven largely by the need for a strong army and state to face Mongol raids.

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