1. Q1Open question

    If a % b = a² - b² and a % b = 63, find a and b.

    1. 9, 6
    2. 10, 7
    3. 8, 1
    4. 7, 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 8, 1

    Explanation

    a² − b² = 63: 8² − 1² = 64 − 1 = 63.

  2. Q2Open question

    How many letters will remain unchanged if the word EDUCATION is arranged alphabetically?

    1. One
    2. Zero
    3. Three
    4. Two
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Zero

    Explanation

    EDUCATION → ACDEINOTU; no letter keeps its position.

  3. Q3Open question

    Select the letter-cluster that will replace (?): B, F, J, N, R, V, Z, ?

    1. A
    2. C
    3. B
    4. D
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) D

    Explanation

    Letters move +4: Z + 4 = D.

  4. Q4Open question

    Pointing to a boy, a woman said, “He is the son of my father’s only daughter.” How is the boy related to the woman?

    1. Son
    2. Brother
    3. Nephew
    4. Cousin
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Son

    Explanation

    Her father's only daughter is the woman herself, so the boy is her son.

  5. Q5Open question

    If 4 ⊕ 3 = 19 and 5 ⊕ 2 = 17, then 6 ⊕ 4 = ?

    1. 24
    2. 28
    3. 34
    4. 32
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 34

    Explanation

    a ⊕ b = ab + a + b: 12+4+3 = 19, 10+5+2 = 17, 24+6+4 = 34.

  6. Q6Open question

    If 3x + 7 = 28, find x.

    1. 7
    2. 6
    3. 5
    4. 8
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 7

    Explanation

    3x = 21, so x = 7.

  7. Q7Open question

    Apply the same pattern used in the following group and find the correct option. METAL : LATEM :: FIBER : ?

    1. ERFIB
    2. BIFER
    3. REBIF
    4. RIFEB
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) REBIF

    Explanation

    The word is reversed: FIBER → REBIF.

  8. Q8Open question

    If '+' = '-' and '-' = '×', find the value of: 12 + 4 - 3 = ?

    1. 5
    2. 0
    3. 1
    4. 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 0

    Explanation

    12 − 4 × 3 = 12 − 12 = 0.

  9. Q9Open question

    Find the odd one out.

    1. 4 : 16 : 256
    2. 3 : 9 : 81
    3. 5 : 25 : 125
    4. 6 : 36 : 1296
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 5 : 25 : 125

    Explanation

    Others are x : x² : x⁴; 5 : 25 : 125 is x : x² : x³.

  10. Q10Open question

    Eight people P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W sit around a circle facing the center. P is second right of Q. R is opposite P. S is immediate left of R. T is third to the right of Q. U is sits to the immediate left of S. W is opposite T. Who is immediate right of Q?

    1. P
    2. R
    3. W
    4. V
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) V

    Explanation

    Placing everyone by the given clues around the circle, the person asked about is V.

  11. Q11Open question

    Find the missing term in the series. ACE, EGI, IKM, MOQ, ?

    1. QSU
    2. PQS
    3. QRT
    4. RSU
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) QSU

    Explanation

    Each letter moves +4: MOQ → QSU.

  12. Q12Open question

    What will come in place of (?) 2, 6, 18, 54, ?

    1. 108
    2. 324
    3. 216
    4. 162
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 162

    Explanation

    Each term × 3: 54 × 3 = 162.

  13. Q13Open question

    Which word cannot be formed from DEMOCRACY?

    1. READY
    2. CORE
    3. MAYOR
    4. CAREER
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) CAREER

    Explanation

    CAREER needs two E's and two R's; DEMOCRACY has only one of each.

  14. Q14Open question

    What comes next? 8, 20, 44, 92, ?

    1. 180
    2. 188
    3. 196
    4. 204
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 188

    Explanation

    Differences double (12, 24, 48), so the next is 92 + 96 = 188.

  15. Q15Open question

    In a certain code language, "apple is sweet fruit" is written as "ka lo mi te", "mango is sweet" is written as "lo mi ra" and "apple mango fresh" is written as "ka ra su". How is "sweet" coded?

    1. su
    2. mi
    3. ra
    4. te
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) mi

    Explanation

    'is' and 'sweet' appear together in both sentences with 'lo' and 'mi', so the code for 'sweet' is not uniquely determinable; the key gives 'mi'. (Flawed question.)

  16. Q16Open question

    The ratio of two numbers is 5 : 7 and their sum is 96. Find the numbers.

    1. 40, 56
    2. 45, 51
    3. 48, 48
    4. 35, 61
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 40, 56

    Explanation

    5x + 7x = 96, so x = 8: 40 and 56.

  17. Q17Open question

    If A is the brother of B, and B is the mother of C, how is A related to C?

    1. Brother
    2. Father
    3. Uncle
    4. Cousin
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Uncle

    Explanation

    A is the brother of C's mother, so A is C's uncle.

  18. Q18Open question

    If “ROAD” is coded as *4@# and “READ” is coded as *7@#, what is the code for “RAOD”?

    1. *@#4
    2. *4#@
    3. *@4#
    4. *#@4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) *@4#

    Explanation

    R = *, O = 4, A = @, D = #, so RAOD = *@4#.

  19. Q19Open question

    In a tournament of 9 players, each plays every other player once. How many matches are played?

    1. 72
    2. 40
    3. 42
    4. 36
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 36

    Explanation

    9C2 = 36 matches.

  20. Q20Open question

    Identify the similar address: 12, Lake View Road, Anna Nagar, Chennai - 600040

    1. 12 Lake View Rd Anna Nagar Chennai 600040
    2. Anna Nagar, 12 Lake Road, Chennai
    3. 12 Lake Road, Chennai - 600004
    4. 21 Lake View Road, Anna Nagar, Chennai
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 12 Lake View Rd Anna Nagar Chennai 600040

    Explanation

    Option (a) keeps number, street, area, city and PIN; the others change details.

  21. Q21Open question

    Statement: Online education is expanding rapidly; hence quality standards must be maintained. Assumptions: I. Online education affects learning outcomes. II. Quality control is necessary in education.

    1. Only I
    2. Only II
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both I and II

    Explanation

    Maintaining quality implies online education affects outcomes and quality control matters, so both assumptions are implicit.

  22. Q22Open question

    If 8 $ 3 = 32 and 6 $ 4 = 30, then 5 $ 4 = ?

    1. 28
    2. 20
    3. 24
    4. 25
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 25

    Explanation

    a $ b = ab + a: 24+8 = 32, 24+6 = 30, 20+5 = 25.

  23. Q23Open question

    If + means × and - means ÷, which is incorrect?

    1. 8 - 2 + 3 = 12
    2. 6 + 3 - 2 = 9
    3. 4 - 2 + 5 = 15
    4. 9 + 1 - 3 = 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 4 - 2 + 5 = 15

    Explanation

    4 ÷ 2 × 5 = 10, not 15.

  24. Q24Open question

    Apply the same pattern used in the following group and find the correct option. COUNTRY : FRXQWUB :: SCHOOL : ?

    1. VFIPPM
    2. VFKRRO
    3. VFJPPN
    4. VEKPPM
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) VFKRRO

    Explanation

    Each letter +3: SCHOOL → VFKRRO.

  25. Q25Open question

    Find the missing term: 3, 7, 15, 31, ?

    1. 47
    2. 63
    3. 61
    4. 64
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 63

    Explanation

    Each term ×2 + 1: 31 × 2 + 1 = 63.

  26. Q26Open question

    On Electrical Safety Day 2025, MoS Power and New & Renewable Energy Shri Shripad Naik unveiled:

    1. National Fire Safety Code
    2. Suraksha Shakti mascot
    3. Smart Meter Rollout Initiative
    4. Grid Digitalization Platform
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Suraksha Shakti mascot

    Explanation

    The 'Suraksha Shakti' mascot was unveiled on Electrical Safety Day 2025.

  27. Q27Open question

    Anglo-Indian nomination in State Assemblies was terminated by:

    1. Governor's ongoing nomination power
    2. 42nd Amendment
    3. 104th Amendment
    4. Proportional representation election
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 104th Amendment

    Explanation

    The 104th Amendment (2020) ended Anglo-Indian nominations to the Lok Sabha and state assemblies.

  28. Q28Open question

    Which is generally not classified as a weather parameter?

    1. Temperature
    2. Humidity
    3. Soil pH
    4. Wind
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Soil pH

    Explanation

    Soil pH is a soil property, not an atmospheric weather parameter.

  29. Q29Open question

    Which pair correctly pairs a temple roof type with its structural feature?

    1. Latina – rectangular, wagon-like
    2. Phamsana – flat slabs sloping upward to a ridge
    3. Valabhi – steeply curving inward
    4. Latina – wide with tiered steps
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Phamsana – flat slabs sloping upward to a ridge

    Explanation

    Phamsana roofs are made of slabs rising gently to a single ridge/point.

  30. Q30Open question

    Strict regulation of cricket ball weight and size in international games ensures:

    1. Advantage to bowlers with heavier balls, batsmen with lighter ones
    2. Consistent bounce, swing, and equity on uniform pitches
    3. Cost savings as per ICC rules
    4. Applies solely to red balls
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Consistent bounce, swing, and equity on uniform pitches

    Explanation

    Uniform ball specifications ensure consistent bounce, swing and fairness.

  31. Q31Open question

    Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) introduces:

    1. Full replacement of IPC provisions
    2. Video recording of confessions
    3. Assumption of guilt
    4. Elimination of bail provisions
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Video recording of confessions

    Explanation

    BNSS allows audio-video recording of confessions and other procedures.

  32. Q32Open question

    Order these classical dance forms by their earliest documented mentions (earliest first): 1. Bharatanatyam 2. Kathak 3. Mohiniyattam 4. Manipuri

    1. 1–3–2–4
    2. 1–2–4–3
    3. 1–3–4–2
    4. 1–4–3–2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1–2–4–3

    Explanation

    As per the key: Bharatanatyam, Kathak, Manipuri, Mohiniyattam. (Dating 'earliest mentions' is debatable.)

  33. Q33Open question

    The Tutsa tribe of Arunachal Pradesh observes the Pongtu Festival mainly to invoke blessings from which god prior to millet sowing?

    1. Donyi-Polo
    2. Rangkhothak
    3. Rangfraa
    4. Nyegi-Nyapa
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Rangkhothak

    Explanation

    The Tutsa worship Rangfraa during Pongtu before sowing.

  34. Q34Open question

    What characterizes the book ‘Hot Stage’?

    1. Anthology of contemporary Indian plays addressing societal concerns
    2. Chronicle of the independence movement
    3. Mythological fiction
    4. Narrative of Himalayan journeys
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Anthology of contemporary Indian plays addressing societal concerns

    Explanation

    'Hot Stage' is an anthology of contemporary Indian plays on social issues.

  35. Q35Open question

    Assertion (A): Iron and steel qualifies as a heavy industry. Reason (R): It uses lightweight inputs such as cotton and rubber.

    1. Both true, R explains A
    2. Both true, R does not explain A
    3. A true, R false
    4. A false, R true
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A true, R false

    Explanation

    Iron and steel is a heavy industry, but it uses heavy raw materials (iron ore, coal), not cotton and rubber.

  36. Q36Open question

    Regarding the 61st National Chess Championship: 1. GM Karthik Venkataraman triumphed in Gurgaon, earning ₹6 lakh. 2. IM Neelash Saha took silver but was edged out in a tiebreak against Ganguly.

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    As per the key, both statements about the 61st National Chess Championship are correct.

  37. Q37Open question

    Assertion (A): PSLV is ISRO's reliable mainstay launch vehicle. Reason (R): PSLV's flexibility allows multi-payload launches to multiple orbits with excellent reliability.

    1. Both true, R explains A
    2. Both true, R does not explain A
    3. A true, R false
    4. A false, R true
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both true, R explains A

    Explanation

    PSLV's multi-orbit flexibility and reliability explain why it is ISRO's workhorse.

  38. Q38Open question

    IMD World Competitiveness Ranking 2025 shows Switzerland topping which dimension in both 2024 and 2025?

    1. Business Efficiency
    2. Infrastructure
    3. Economic Performance
    4. Employment
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Infrastructure

    Explanation

    As per the key, Switzerland led the Infrastructure factor in both years.

  39. Q39Open question

    Kalbelia dance symbolizes the sinuous motion of ______.

    1. Camels
    2. Snakes
    3. Birds
    4. Horses
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Snakes

    Explanation

    Kalbelia imitates the movements of snakes.

  40. Q40Open question

    On MISHTI Scheme: 1. Targets mangrove afforestation via scientific techniques. 2. Introduced in Budget 2023–24. 3. Permits commercial mangrove leasing.

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. All 1, 2, and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

    Explanation

    MISHTI (Budget 2023-24) promotes scientific mangrove plantation; no commercial leasing.

  41. Q41Open question

    Who claimed India’s inaugural Paralympic archery gold at Paris 2024?

    1. Sheetal Devi
    2. Harvinder Singh
    3. Rakesh Kumar
    4. Preethi Pal
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Harvinder Singh

    Explanation

    Harvinder Singh won India's first Paralympic archery gold at Paris 2024.

  42. Q42Open question

    Assertion (A): Chotanagpur Plateau forms the eastern continuation of Central Highlands. Reason (R): It is chiefly drained by Chambal and Betwa rivers.

    1. Both A and R true, R explains A
    2. Both true, R does not explain A
    3. A true, R false
    4. A false, R true
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A true, R false

    Explanation

    Chotanagpur is drained by the Damodar, Subarnarekha and Koel, not the Chambal and Betwa, so R is false.

  43. Q43Open question

    The BRICS Foreign Ministers' Meeting on 4 June 2018 took place in which city?

    1. Pretoria, South Africa
    2. Brasília, Brazil
    3. Beijing, China
    4. New Delhi, India
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Pretoria, South Africa

    Explanation

    The 4 June 2018 BRICS FMs' meeting was in Pretoria.

  44. Q44Open question

    Abrogation of Article 370's special status for Jammu and Kashmir occurred via:

    1. Presidential Order under Article 370(3)
    2. Parliamentary amendment under Article 368
    3. Presidential Ordinance
    4. Article 356 Order
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Presidential Order under Article 370(3)

    Explanation

    Special status was ended via Presidential Order C.O. 272 and a declaration under Article 370(3).

  45. Q45Open question

    Which program enables postmen to deliver financial services?

    1. NSAP
    2. IPPB
    3. PMJAY
    4. PRAGATI
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) IPPB

    Explanation

    India Post Payments Bank lets postmen deliver banking services at the doorstep.

  46. Q46Open question

    In Teen Taal from Hindustani music, the Khali beat falls on the ______ matra.

    1. 1
    2. 5
    3. 9
    4. 13
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 9

    Explanation

    In Teen Taal (16 beats) the Khali falls on the 9th matra.

  47. Q47Open question

    Approval by both Houses of Parliament for a National Emergency Proclamation is needed within:

    1. 1 month
    2. 3 months
    3. 6 months
    4. 9 months
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 month

    Explanation

    Article 352: both Houses must approve within one month.

  48. Q48Open question

    The 2025 ‘Mangrove Cell’ program is associated primarily with which state?

    1. Odisha
    2. Andhra Pradesh
    3. Maharashtra
    4. West Bengal
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Maharashtra

    Explanation

    Maharashtra's Mangrove Cell leads its mangrove conservation.

  49. Q49Open question

    Non-metallic minerals in India are best described as:

    1. Scarce for industrial applications
    2. Mainly gemstones with little industry role
    3. Abundant and essential for key sectors
    4. Secondary to metallic minerals in growth
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Abundant and essential for key sectors

    Explanation

    India has abundant non-metallic minerals (limestone, mica, etc.) vital to industry.

  50. Q50Open question

    The initial module of Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is slated for launch in:

    1. 2028
    2. 2030
    3. 2035
    4. 2040
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2028

    Explanation

    The first BAS module is planned for 2028.

  51. Q51Open question

    A shopkeeper sells rice at a discount of 6% on the marked price but uses a weight that is 25% less than the actual weight. Find his overall profit percentage.

    1. 20.5%
    2. 22.5%
    3. 25.3%
    4. 26.5%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 25.3%

    Explanation

    He sells 750 g for the price of 1 kg at 94%: 0.94/0.75 = 1.2533, so the profit is ≈ 25.3%.

  52. Q52Open question

    The profit made on an article sold for ₹2400 is equal to the loss incurred when it is sold for ₹2000. What will be the profit or loss percentage if the article is sold for ₹2200?

    1. Profit of 2.5%
    2. Profit of 3.125%
    3. Loss of 3.125%
    4. No loss, No profit
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) No loss, No profit

    Explanation

    CP = (2400 + 2000)/2 = 2200, so selling at ₹2200 gives no profit, no loss.

  53. Q53Open question

    A right circular cone has a radius of 9 cm and a height of 40 cm. What is its slant height?

    1. 41 cm
    2. 42 cm
    3. 43 cm
    4. 45 cm
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 41 cm

    Explanation

    l = √(9² + 40²) = √1681 = 41 cm.

  54. Q54Open question

    If 40% of P = 0.5 of Q = 1/8 of R, find P : Q : R.

    1. 5 : 4 : 16
    2. 4 : 5 : 16
    3. 2 : 5 : 8
    4. 4 : 5 : 8
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 5 : 4 : 16

    Explanation

    0.4P = 0.5Q = R/8 = k gives P = 2.5k, Q = 2k, R = 8k, so P : Q : R = 5 : 4 : 16.

  55. Q55Open question

    Evaluate: 15⅓% of 480 km + 58⅓% of 300 km

    1. 266.6 km
    2. 285.5 km
    3. 248.6 km
    4. 320 km
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 248.6 km

    Explanation

    15⅓% of 480 = 73.6; 58⅓% of 300 = 175; total 248.6 km.

  56. Q56Open question

    A sales agent earns 3% commission on laptops priced at ₹40,000 each and 8% commission on printers priced at ₹8,000 each. If in a week he sells 4 laptops and 10 printers, what is his total commission for 5 such weeks?

    1. ₹52,000
    2. ₹50,400
    3. ₹56,000
    4. ₹51,200
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) ₹56,000

    Explanation

    Weekly: 4 × 1200 + 10 × 640 = 11,200; × 5 = ₹56,000.

  57. Q57Open question

    The radius of a circular plate is increased by 8%. What will be the approximate percentage increase in its area?

    1. 8%
    2. 15%
    3. 16.64%
    4. 17.28%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 16.64%

    Explanation

    (1.08)² = 1.1664, a 16.64% increase.

  58. Q58Open question

    A rectangular prism has a base area of 36 cm². If its height is increased by 25% from the original height of 12 cm, what is the new volume?

    1. 432 cm³
    2. 486 cm³
    3. 504 cm³
    4. 540 cm³
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 540 cm³

    Explanation

    New height 15 cm; volume 36 × 15 = 540 cm³.

  59. Q59Open question

    A solid metal sphere of radius 6 cm is completely immersed in a vertical cylindrical vessel containing water, causing the water level to rise by 4 cm. What is the radius of the cylinder?

    1. 4√2 cm
    2. 5√2 cm
    3. 6√2 cm
    4. 8√2 cm
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 6√2 cm

    Explanation

    (4/3)π6³ = πr² × 4 gives r² = 72, r = 6√2 cm.

  60. Q60Open question

    A train covers 1.2 km in 1 minute. How far will it travel in 2 hours 15 minutes?

    1. 162 km
    2. 156 km
    3. 171 km
    4. 168 km
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 162 km

    Explanation

    135 min × 1.2 km = 162 km.

  61. Q61Open question

    Two farmers, X and Y, hire a field. X keeps 18 oxen there for 5 months and 20 goats for 3 months. Y keeps 24 goats for 7 months and 30 sheep for 6 months. If 2 oxen eat as much as 5 goats, and 3 goats eat as much as 4 sheep, what fraction of the total rent should X pay?

    1. 90/196
    2. 95/196
    3. 10/196
    4. 111/196
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 95/196

    Explanation

    In goat-months: X = 225 + 60 = 285; Y = 168 + 135 = 303; X's share = 285/588 = 95/196.

  62. Q62Open question

    Three batches of students have average ages 17, 19, and 23 years respectively. If their numbers are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 6, what is the overall average age of all the students?

    1. 19.41
    2. 20.38
    3. 21.20
    4. 18.9
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 20.38

    Explanation

    (3×17 + 4×19 + 6×23)/13 = 265/13 ≈ 20.38.

  63. Q63Open question

    The average of 13 numbers is 75. If the average of the first six numbers is 69 and the average of the last six numbers is 80, what is the 7th number?

    1. 81
    2. 82
    3. 83
    4. 84
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 81

    Explanation

    975 − 6×69 − 6×80 = 975 − 414 − 480 = 81.

  64. Q64Open question

    What is the average of all integers between 200 and 350 that are exactly divisible by 11?

    1. 275
    2. 272
    3. 286
    4. 292
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 275

    Explanation

    Multiples of 11 from 209 to 341; average = (209 + 341)/2 = 275.

  65. Q65Open question

    How many kilograms of wheat costing ₹52 per kg must be mixed with 30 kg of wheat costing ₹40 per kg so that a 20% gain may be obtained by selling the mixture at ₹54 per kg?

    1. 18.2 kg
    2. 21.4 kg
    3. 24 kg
    4. 28.5 kg
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 21.4 kg

    Explanation

    Mixture CP = 54/1.2 = ₹45. By alligation 52 : 40 = 5 : 7, so x = 30 × 5/7 ≈ 21.4 kg.

  66. Q66Open question

    A gardener has 80 m of fencing wire. He can use this wire to enclose either a circular lawn or a square lawn. If he uses the entire wire in each case, what is the approximate ratio of the area of the circular lawn to the area of the square lawn?

    1. 1 : 1
    2. 1.21 : 1
    3. 1.27 : 1
    4. 1.57 : 1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1.27 : 1

    Explanation

    Circle r = 40/π, area = 1600/π ≈ 509.3; square area = 400; ratio ≈ 1.27 : 1.

  67. Q67Open question

    Simplify: (5 + √3)(5 − √3) − (25 − 3)

    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. 2
    4. √3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 0

    Explanation

    (5+√3)(5−√3) = 25 − 3 = 22; 22 − 22 = 0. (Question corrected: the source printed '+' between the brackets.)

  68. Q68Open question

    A family spends on groceries, rent, and other expenses in the ratio 3 : 5 : 2. Next year, groceries are expected to rise by 8%, rent by 4%, and other expenses to fall by 10%. What will be the overall percentage change in total expenditure?

    1. 1% decrease
    2. 2.4% increase
    3. 1.2% increase
    4. 0.8% decrease
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2.4% increase

    Explanation

    3×1.08 + 5×1.04 + 2×0.90 = 10.24 against 10, a 2.4% increase.

  69. Q69Open question

    C and D invested ₹1,40,000 and ₹1,80,000, respectively. C remained for 9 months and D for 8 months. If C's share in the profit is ₹18,900, what is the total profit?

    1. ₹40,500
    2. ₹36,000
    3. ₹34,200
    4. ₹38,400
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) ₹40,500

    Explanation

    C : D = 140×9 : 180×8 = 7 : 8. Total = 18,900 × 15/7 = ₹40,500.

  70. Q70Open question

    A television set is sold for ₹Q and the shopkeeper earns a profit of 25%. During a clearance sale, he marks the same set at 1.4Q and allows a discount of 15% on the marked price. What is his profit percentage during the sale?

    1. 45.75%
    2. 40%
    3. 48.75%
    4. 50%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 48.75%

    Explanation

    CP = 0.8Q; SP = 1.4Q × 0.85 = 1.19Q; profit = 1.19/0.8 − 1 = 48.75%.

  71. Q71Open question

    A trader marks his goods 30% above the cost price and then allows a discount of 12%. What is his profit percentage?

    1. 14.4%
    2. 15.6%
    3. 16.5%
    4. 18.0%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 14.4%

    Explanation

    1.3 × 0.88 = 1.144, a 14.4% profit.

  72. Q72Open question

    A shopkeeper marks his products 50% above the cost price and allows a discount of 20% on the marked price. He also gives an additional cash discount of ₹120 and still makes a profit of 16% on cost. What is the cost price of the product?

    1. ₹1,800
    2. ₹3,000
    3. ₹2,200
    4. ₹2,400
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) ₹3,000

    Explanation

    1.5 × 0.8C − 120 = 1.16C gives 0.04C = 120, so C = ₹3,000.

  73. Q73Open question

    X lent ₹6,000 to Y for 3 years and ₹4,000 to Z for 2 years, both at the same simple interest rate. In total, he received ₹2,000 as interest from both. What is the rate of interest per annum(nearest integer)?

    1. 8%
    2. 10%
    3. 12%
    4. 15%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 8%

    Explanation

    (6000×3 + 4000×2) × r/100 = 2000 gives 260r = 2000, r ≈ 7.7 ≈ 8%.

  74. Q74Open question

    A sector of a circle has a central angle of 150° and radius 10 cm. Another sector of the same circle has a central angle of 5π/6 radians. What is the ratio of the area of the first sector to that of the second?

    1. 3 : 4
    2. 1 : 1
    3. 4 : 5
    4. 5 : 6
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1 : 1

    Explanation

    5π/6 rad = 150°, so the areas are equal: 1 : 1.

  75. Q75Open question

    Two men, M and N, rent a pasture. M uses 12 cows for 4 months and 18 goats for 5 months, while N uses 26 goats for 7 months. If 3 cows are equivalent to 7 goats, what is M's share of the rent?

    1. 101/192
    2. 110/192
    3. 105/192
    4. 60/192
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 101/192

    Explanation

    In goat-months: M = 48 cow-months (= 112 goat-months) + 90 = 202; N = 182; M's share = 202/384 = 101/192.

  76. Q76Open question

    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Polymathic

    1. Intellectual
    2. Uninformed
    3. Skilled
    4. Saintly
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Uninformed

    Explanation

    Polymathic (widely learned) is the opposite of uninformed.

  77. Q77Open question

    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: Eulogy

    1. Panegyric
    2. Tributary
    3. Castigation
    4. Pronunciation
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Castigation

    Explanation

    Eulogy (praise) is the opposite of castigation (severe criticism).

  78. Q78Open question

    Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: It has been claimed that important data was being disclosed by employees within the firm.

    1. Someone has claimed that employees were disclosing important data within the firm.
    2. Important data had been disclosed by employees, it is claimed.
    3. Employees have allegedly been disclosing important data within the firm.
    4. The firm was allegedly disclosing employee’s data.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Someone has claimed that employees were disclosing important data within the firm.

    Explanation

    The passive 'It has been claimed' becomes 'Someone has claimed'.

  79. Q79Open question

    Rearrange the following sentences in correct order to make a logical passage: 1. The team examined the feedback results. 2. The findings were applied to enhance the customer journey. 3. A focused promotional campaign was designed. 4. The information was gathered through multiple sources.

    1. 1-4-3-2
    2. 3-1-2-4
    3. 4-3-1-2
    4. 4-1-3-2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 4-1-3-2

    Explanation

    The logical sequence per the key is 4-1-3-2.

  80. Q80Open question

    A sentence is provided in indirect speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding direct speech. The manager told the staff that due dates must be met strictly.

    1. “Due dates must be met strictly,” said the manager.
    2. “You should meet the due dates strictly,” said the manager.
    3. “Meet the due dates strictly,” the manager said.
    4. “Due dates are to be met,” said the manager.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) “Due dates must be met strictly,” said the manager.

    Explanation

    Reporting a statement: "Due dates must be met strictly," said the manager.

  81. Q81Open question

    Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The researcher cited a bailey in Norman defensive design.

    1. Bailey presented the findings on Norman fortifications at the seminar.
    2. The outer bailey encircled the motte and was guarded by watchtowers.
    3. The soldiers retreated into the bailey when the main gate collapsed.
    4. A wooden palisade was raised around the bailey for extra protection.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Bailey presented the findings on Norman fortifications at the seminar.

    Explanation

    Option (a) uses 'Bailey' as a person's name; the others use bailey as a castle courtyard.

  82. Q82Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: A common pattern in group decision-making—widely known as groupthink—occurs when a team’s hunger for complete agreement becomes stronger than its willingness to examine other viewpoints with a critical lens. As a result, choices often turn defective because disagreement is either quietly silenced from within or discouraged through social consequences. Closely linked to this is social conformity, the tendency to adjust one’s opinions or actions to match the majority—often unconsciously—to gain acceptance or prevent friction. In closely bonded circles such as boardrooms, policy groups, or academic committees, individuals may hold back opposing ideas due to fear of exclusion or damage to reputation. With time, this shared uniformity creates mental stagnation, weakens creativity, and increases the chance of strategic misjudgments. The Bay of Pigs episode and the Challenger space shuttle tragedy are commonly highlighted as classic cases where groupthink distorted judgment. From a psychological angle, conformity is tied to our evolutionary pull toward tribal belonging, where standing apart once carried survival threats. Today, that same impulse shows up through peer pressure, workplace norms, and online echo chambers. Digital platforms intensify conformity because algorithms construct personalized “bubbles” that confirm existing beliefs while screening out conflicting perspectives. The antidote to this narrowed thinking is to build dissent into the system. When teams welcome principled disagreement, it becomes a mental safety-check against tunnel vision. Encouraging an environment where counterviews are valued—not punished—supports stronger, more balanced, and more resilient decisions. In a time shaped by viral fads, polarized debate, and performative agreement, the bravery to question the crowd is both uncommon and necessary. Real progress grows not from automatic loyalty to majority norms, but from critical probing and the nerve to challenge what feels comfortable. What is the main point of groupthink as presented in the passage?

    1. Generating ideas through teamwork
    2. Prioritizing agreement over evaluation
    3. Relying only on specialists
    4. Distributing authority across units
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Prioritizing agreement over evaluation

    Explanation

    Groupthink is putting consensus above critical evaluation.

  83. Q83Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: A common pattern in group decision-making—widely known as groupthink—occurs when a team’s hunger for complete agreement becomes stronger than its willingness to examine other viewpoints with a critical lens. As a result, choices often turn defective because disagreement is either quietly silenced from within or discouraged through social consequences. Closely linked to this is social conformity, the tendency to adjust one’s opinions or actions to match the majority—often unconsciously—to gain acceptance or prevent friction. In closely bonded circles such as boardrooms, policy groups, or academic committees, individuals may hold back opposing ideas due to fear of exclusion or damage to reputation. With time, this shared uniformity creates mental stagnation, weakens creativity, and increases the chance of strategic misjudgments. The Bay of Pigs episode and the Challenger space shuttle tragedy are commonly highlighted as classic cases where groupthink distorted judgment. From a psychological angle, conformity is tied to our evolutionary pull toward tribal belonging, where standing apart once carried survival threats. Today, that same impulse shows up through peer pressure, workplace norms, and online echo chambers. Digital platforms intensify conformity because algorithms construct personalized “bubbles” that confirm existing beliefs while screening out conflicting perspectives. The antidote to this narrowed thinking is to build dissent into the system. When teams welcome principled disagreement, it becomes a mental safety-check against tunnel vision. Encouraging an environment where counterviews are valued—not punished—supports stronger, more balanced, and more resilient decisions. In a time shaped by viral fads, polarized debate, and performative agreement, the bravery to question the crowd is both uncommon and necessary. Real progress grows not from automatic loyalty to majority norms, but from critical probing and the nerve to challenge what feels comfortable. As per the passage, which evolutionary tendency fuels social conformity?

    1. Craving for control
    2. Urge for quick success
    3. Instinct for tribal belonging and safety
    4. Desire for comfort and luxury
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Instinct for tribal belonging and safety

    Explanation

    The passage links conformity to an evolved instinct for tribal belonging and safety.

  84. Q84Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: A common pattern in group decision-making—widely known as groupthink—occurs when a team’s hunger for complete agreement becomes stronger than its willingness to examine other viewpoints with a critical lens. As a result, choices often turn defective because disagreement is either quietly silenced from within or discouraged through social consequences. Closely linked to this is social conformity, the tendency to adjust one’s opinions or actions to match the majority—often unconsciously—to gain acceptance or prevent friction. In closely bonded circles such as boardrooms, policy groups, or academic committees, individuals may hold back opposing ideas due to fear of exclusion or damage to reputation. With time, this shared uniformity creates mental stagnation, weakens creativity, and increases the chance of strategic misjudgments. The Bay of Pigs episode and the Challenger space shuttle tragedy are commonly highlighted as classic cases where groupthink distorted judgment. From a psychological angle, conformity is tied to our evolutionary pull toward tribal belonging, where standing apart once carried survival threats. Today, that same impulse shows up through peer pressure, workplace norms, and online echo chambers. Digital platforms intensify conformity because algorithms construct personalized “bubbles” that confirm existing beliefs while screening out conflicting perspectives. The antidote to this narrowed thinking is to build dissent into the system. When teams welcome principled disagreement, it becomes a mental safety-check against tunnel vision. Encouraging an environment where counterviews are valued—not punished—supports stronger, more balanced, and more resilient decisions. In a time shaped by viral fads, polarized debate, and performative agreement, the bravery to question the crowd is both uncommon and necessary. Real progress grows not from automatic loyalty to majority norms, but from critical probing and the nerve to challenge what feels comfortable. Which incident is mentioned as a real-life outcome linked to groupthink?

    1. A major peace treaty of the Cold War
    2. Challenger space shuttle disaster
    3. A national referendum outcome
    4. A stock-market technology collapse
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Challenger space shuttle disaster

    Explanation

    The Challenger disaster is cited as a groupthink outcome.

  85. Q85Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: A common pattern in group decision-making—widely known as groupthink—occurs when a team’s hunger for complete agreement becomes stronger than its willingness to examine other viewpoints with a critical lens. As a result, choices often turn defective because disagreement is either quietly silenced from within or discouraged through social consequences. Closely linked to this is social conformity, the tendency to adjust one’s opinions or actions to match the majority—often unconsciously—to gain acceptance or prevent friction. In closely bonded circles such as boardrooms, policy groups, or academic committees, individuals may hold back opposing ideas due to fear of exclusion or damage to reputation. With time, this shared uniformity creates mental stagnation, weakens creativity, and increases the chance of strategic misjudgments. The Bay of Pigs episode and the Challenger space shuttle tragedy are commonly highlighted as classic cases where groupthink distorted judgment. From a psychological angle, conformity is tied to our evolutionary pull toward tribal belonging, where standing apart once carried survival threats. Today, that same impulse shows up through peer pressure, workplace norms, and online echo chambers. Digital platforms intensify conformity because algorithms construct personalized “bubbles” that confirm existing beliefs while screening out conflicting perspectives. The antidote to this narrowed thinking is to build dissent into the system. When teams welcome principled disagreement, it becomes a mental safety-check against tunnel vision. Encouraging an environment where counterviews are valued—not punished—supports stronger, more balanced, and more resilient decisions. In a time shaped by viral fads, polarized debate, and performative agreement, the bravery to question the crowd is both uncommon and necessary. Real progress grows not from automatic loyalty to majority norms, but from critical probing and the nerve to challenge what feels comfortable. How does the passage say digital platforms strengthen conformity?

    1. By banning sensitive debates
    2. By summarizing facts through visuals
    3. By creating curated echo chambers
    4. By allowing hidden identities
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) By creating curated echo chambers

    Explanation

    Digital platforms build curated echo chambers.

  86. Q86Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: A common pattern in group decision-making—widely known as groupthink—occurs when a team’s hunger for complete agreement becomes stronger than its willingness to examine other viewpoints with a critical lens. As a result, choices often turn defective because disagreement is either quietly silenced from within or discouraged through social consequences. Closely linked to this is social conformity, the tendency to adjust one’s opinions or actions to match the majority—often unconsciously—to gain acceptance or prevent friction. In closely bonded circles such as boardrooms, policy groups, or academic committees, individuals may hold back opposing ideas due to fear of exclusion or damage to reputation. With time, this shared uniformity creates mental stagnation, weakens creativity, and increases the chance of strategic misjudgments. The Bay of Pigs episode and the Challenger space shuttle tragedy are commonly highlighted as classic cases where groupthink distorted judgment. From a psychological angle, conformity is tied to our evolutionary pull toward tribal belonging, where standing apart once carried survival threats. Today, that same impulse shows up through peer pressure, workplace norms, and online echo chambers. Digital platforms intensify conformity because algorithms construct personalized “bubbles” that confirm existing beliefs while screening out conflicting perspectives. The antidote to this narrowed thinking is to build dissent into the system. When teams welcome principled disagreement, it becomes a mental safety-check against tunnel vision. Encouraging an environment where counterviews are valued—not punished—supports stronger, more balanced, and more resilient decisions. In a time shaped by viral fads, polarized debate, and performative agreement, the bravery to question the crowd is both uncommon and necessary. Real progress grows not from automatic loyalty to majority norms, but from critical probing and the nerve to challenge what feels comfortable. What remedy does the passage recommend for groupthink and conformity?

    1. Appointing more experienced seniors
    2. Enforcing strict compliance
    3. Encouraging constructive dissent
    4. Increasing online reach and connections
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Encouraging constructive dissent

    Explanation

    The passage recommends encouraging constructive dissent.

  87. Q87Open question

    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: No one knows where is he staying.

    1. where is he stay
    2. where he is staying at
    3. where he is staying
    4. where he had stayed is
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) where he is staying

    Explanation

    An embedded question uses statement order: 'where he is staying'.

  88. Q88Open question

    Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Blow a fuse

    1. To slip away quietly
    2. To vanish suddenly
    3. To become suddenly angry
    4. To manage a situation smartly
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) To become suddenly angry

    Explanation

    'Blow a fuse' means to suddenly become very angry.

  89. Q89Open question

    Select the correct option: The new rules, though seemingly driven by fiscal necessity, were actually a covert move to __ dissent under “austerity.”

    1. quell
    2. impugn
    3. swell
    4. rebut
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) quell

    Explanation

    'Quell' means to suppress dissent.

  90. Q90Open question

    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: She demanded me to swallow the medication.

    1. demanded that I swallow the medication
    2. me swallowing the medication
    3. that me swallow the medication
    4. to swallow the medication by me
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) demanded that I swallow the medication

    Explanation

    'Demand' takes a that-clause: 'demanded that I swallow...'.

  91. Q91Open question

    Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. These influences include how much sunlight is received, the make-up of the atmosphere, and the Earth’s orbital path. 2. Long-term shifts in Earth’s climate are shaped by an intricate mix of natural and human-driven influences. 3. The most prominent human-driven influence is the release of greenhouse gases from industrial processes. 4. Together, these components control the planet’s overall energy balance and, as a result, its average temperature.

    1. 2, 1, 3, 4
    2. 1, 2, 3, 4
    3. 3, 4, 1, 2
    4. 4, 2, 3, 1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2, 1, 3, 4

    Explanation

    The general statement (2) comes first, followed by the influences (1) and details (3, 4).

  92. Q92Open question

    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The higher the office was (1)/ the more pressing became the need (2)/ for prudence, propriety, and (3)/ avoiding of early disclosure. (4)

    1. (1)
    2. (2)
    3. (3)
    4. (4)
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) (4)

    Explanation

    Parallel nouns require 'avoidance of early disclosure'.

  93. Q93Open question

    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The report’s focus on tech-utopianism, though praiseworthy, (1)/ ignore the deep-rooted inequities (2)/ that continue in data availability and digital competence (3)/ across demographic and regional gaps. (4)

    1. (1)
    2. (2)
    3. (3)
    4. (4)
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) (2)

    Explanation

    The singular subject 'focus' needs 'ignores'.

  94. Q94Open question

    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: AMORPHOUS

    1. Vague
    2. Clear
    3. Strict
    4. Accurate
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Vague

    Explanation

    Amorphous means shapeless or vague.

  95. Q95Open question

    Identify the correct spelling of the term chromosomal “three copies”.

    1. Trissomie
    2. Trissomy
    3. Trisomy
    4. Trisomie
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Trisomy

    Explanation

    The correct spelling is 'trisomy'.

  96. Q96Open question

    Select the correct option: So fragile __ the talks that one disclosure could sabotage them.

    1. are
    2. were
    3. is
    4. was
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) were

    Explanation

    Inversion with a plural subject in past context: 'So fragile were the talks'.

  97. Q97Open question

    Select the correct option: Her analysis was __ than impressive; it was nearly revelatory.

    1. less
    2. more
    3. other
    4. rather
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) more

    Explanation

    'More than impressive' means exceeding impressive.

  98. Q98Open question

    A sentence is provided in direct speech. From the four given options, choose the one that most accurately conveys the sentence in its corresponding indirect speech. He said, “I am not feeling fine.”

    1. He said that he is not feeling fine.
    2. He said that he was not feeling fine.
    3. He said that he didn’t feel fine.
    4. He said he not feeling fine.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) He said that he was not feeling fine.

    Explanation

    'am' shifts to 'was' in reported speech.

  99. Q99Open question

    Identify the correct one-word substitute for: “A condition of disuse or inactivity.”

    1. Interregnum
    2. Destitute
    3. Lethargy
    4. Desuetude
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Desuetude

    Explanation

    Desuetude means a state of disuse.

  100. Q100Open question

    Change the following from active to passive: Why did the editor disregard the major stylistic irregularities?

    1. Why have the major stylistic irregularities been disregarded by the editor?
    2. Why are the major stylistic irregularities being disregarded by the editor?
    3. Why did the major stylistic irregularities be disregarded by the editor?
    4. Why were the major stylistic irregularities disregarded by the editor?
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Why were the major stylistic irregularities disregarded by the editor?

    Explanation

    'Why did ... disregard' becomes 'Why were ... disregarded by the editor?'.

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