1. Q1Open question

    A says: “She is the daughter of my father’s only son.” How is the girl related to A?

    1. Sister
    2. Cousin
    3. Mother
    4. Daughter
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Daughter

    Explanation

    A's father's only son is A himself, so she is A's daughter.

  2. Q2Open question

    If 4 # 3 = 19 and 6 # 5 = 41, then 8 # 7 = ?

    1. 63
    2. 65
    3. 71
    4. 73
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 71

    Explanation

    a # b = a² + b: 16 + 3 = 19, 36 + 5 = 41, 64 + 7 = 71.

  3. Q3Open question

    If LIGHT is coded as KJFIS, then HEAVY is coded as?

    1. GEZWX
    2. GFZWX
    3. GFZXX
    4. GFYWX
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) GFZWX

    Explanation

    Shifts −1, +1, −1, +1, −1: HEAVY → GFZWX.

  4. Q4Open question

    If 7x + 5 = 61, then x = ?

    1. 7
    2. 8
    3. 9
    4. 10
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 8

    Explanation

    7x = 56, x = 8.

  5. Q5Open question

    Statement: “The government should regulate plastic usage strictly.” Assumptions: I. Plastic causes environmental damage. II. Regulations can reduce plastic usage.

    1. Only I
    2. Only II
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both I and II

    Explanation

    Calling for regulation assumes plastic is harmful and that regulation works.

  6. Q6Open question

    Choose the option that continues the following numbers: 21, 34, 55, ?

    1. 89
    2. 90
    3. 87
    4. 91
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 89

    Explanation

    Fibonacci: 34 + 55 = 89.

  7. Q7Open question

    How many letters will remain unchanged if the word MOBILE is arranged alphabetically?

    1. 2
    2. 1
    3. 0
    4. 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 0

    Explanation

    MOBILE → BEILMO; no letter keeps its position.

  8. Q8Open question

    If + is ×, × is −, − is ÷ and ÷ is +, then 6 + 4 × 24 − 8 ÷ 4 = ?

    1. 30
    2. 25
    3. 20
    4. 35
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 25

    Explanation

    6 × 4 − 24 ÷ 8 + 4 = 24 − 3 + 4 = 25.

  9. Q9Open question

    In a row of students, R is 10th from left and S is 12th from right. If they interchange positions, R becomes 14th from left. Total students?

    1. 23
    2. 24
    3. 25
    4. 26
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 25

    Explanation

    S's old position is 14th from left and 12th from right: 14 + 12 − 1 = 25.

  10. Q10Open question

    Select the incorrect (odd) term from the given options.

    1. RED
    2. QDC
    3. TGF
    4. KLM
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) KLM

    Explanation

    In the others, the last two letters are consecutive and in reverse order; KLM runs forward.

  11. Q11Open question

    P is brother of Q. Q is mother of R. How is P related to R?

    1. Uncle
    2. Father
    3. Brother
    4. Cousin
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Uncle

    Explanation

    P is the brother of R's mother: a maternal uncle.

  12. Q12Open question

    Complete the series: 2, 5, 10, 17, ?

    1. 24
    2. 26
    3. 25
    4. 27
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 26

    Explanation

    n² + 1: 5² + 1 = 26.

  13. Q13Open question

    Find the odd one out.

    1. 4 : 16
    2. 5 : 25
    3. 6 : 36
    4. 8 : 54
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 8 : 54

    Explanation

    The others are n : n²; 8² = 64, not 54.

  14. Q14Open question

    If PEARL is coded as RGCUN, how is STONE coded?

    1. UVQQG
    2. UVQPF
    3. UVRPF
    4. TUPOF
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) UVQQG

    Explanation

    Shifts +2, +2, +2, +3, +2: STONE → UVQQG.

  15. Q15Open question

    If ‘$’ means + and ‘@’ means ×, then 8 @ 3 $ 4 = ?

    1. 24
    2. 32
    3. 36
    4. 28
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 28

    Explanation

    8 × 3 + 4 = 28.

  16. Q16Open question

    Complete the series: 3, 6, 13, 28, ?

    1. 55
    2. 57
    3. 59
    4. 61
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 59

    Explanation

    ×2 + 0, +1, +2, +3: 28 × 2 + 3 = 59.

  17. Q17Open question

    If the sum of 48 and 32 is multiplied by 6, the result is:

    1. 420
    2. 500
    3. 480
    4. 540
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 480

    Explanation

    80 × 6 = 480.

  18. Q18Open question

    Apply the same pattern used in the following group and find the correct option. WRITE → UQGSC BREAK → ?

    1. ZQCYI
    2. ZQCZI
    3. YOCYI
    4. YPCYI
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) ZQCZI

    Explanation

    Shifts −2, −1, −2, −1, −2: BREAK → ZQCZI.

  19. Q19Open question

    How many meaningful English words can be formed using the letters of PLANT, each letter used once?

    1. 2
    2. 1
    3. 4
    4. 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1

    Explanation

    Only 'PLANT' itself.

  20. Q20Open question

    Select the option that will replace the question mark. ABDF, CEGH, EHJJ, ?

    1. GKML
    2. FHJK
    3. GKJL
    4. HJKL
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) GKML

    Explanation

    1st letters +2 (G), 2nd +3 (K), 3rd +3 (M), 4th +2 (L): GKML.

  21. Q21Open question

    If CAT = DBU, then DOG = ?

    1. EPJ
    2. FPH
    3. EPH
    4. EOJ
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) EPH

    Explanation

    Each letter +1: EPH.

  22. Q22Open question

    If 6 @ 4 = 40 and 5 @ 3 = 24, then 8 @ 5 = ?

    1. 60
    2. 65
    3. 55
    4. 75
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 65

    Explanation

    (a + b) × b: 10×4 = 40, 8×3 = 24, 13×5 = 65.

  23. Q23Open question

    Choose the option exactly similar to: Flat No. 45, Block C, Sector 18, Noida, UP – 201301

    1. Flat No. 45, Block B, Sector 18, Noida, UP – 201301
    2. Flat No. 45, Block C, Sector 19, Noida, UP – 201301
    3. Flat No. 54, Block C, Sector 18, Noida, UP – 201301
    4. Flat No. 45, Block C, Sector 18, Noida, UP – 201301
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Flat No. 45, Block C, Sector 18, Noida, UP – 201301

    Explanation

    Only (d) matches every detail.

  24. Q24Open question

    How many diagonals does a pentagon have?

    1. 5
    2. 7
    3. 10
    4. 15
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 5

    Explanation

    n(n − 3)/2 = 5 × 2/2 = 5.

  25. Q25Open question

    If 14 + 6 = 84 and 10 + 8 = 80, then 12 + 8 = ?

    1. 76
    2. 82
    3. 84
    4. 96
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 96

    Explanation

    '+' means ×: 12 × 8 = 96.

  26. Q26Open question

    Arrange the steps in the passage of an Ordinary Bill in Parliament: A. Introduction in either House B. Passage by both Houses C. President’s assent D. Consideration in the second House

    1. A-B-D-C
    2. A-D-B-C
    3. B-A-D-C
    4. D-A-B-C
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) A-D-B-C

    Explanation

    Introduction, consideration in the second House, passage by both, then assent (as per the key's sequence).

  27. Q27Open question

    The ‘Mission Karmayogi’ programme is implemented by which department?

    1. Department of Personnel and Training
    2. Ministry of Defence
    3. Ministry of Finance
    4. NITI Aayog
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Department of Personnel and Training

    Explanation

    Mission Karmayogi (civil services capacity building) is under DoPT.

  28. Q28Open question

    Under India's new criminal laws, digital/electronic evidence is treated as:

    1. Secondary evidence only
    2. Primary evidence if authenticated
    3. Invalid evidence
    4. Oral testimony
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Primary evidence if authenticated

    Explanation

    The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam 2023 treats electronic records as primary evidence (the source question names the BNS, but it is the BSA).

  29. Q29Open question

    According to recent energy transition strategies, which measure improves grid stability?

    1. Increasing coal imports
    2. Expanding energy storage systems
    3. Reducing renewable energy capacity
    4. Limiting digital monitoring
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Expanding energy storage systems

    Explanation

    Storage smooths out variable renewable supply.

  30. Q30Open question

    Assertion (A): India is developing small satellite launch vehicles (SSLVs). Reason (R): SSLVs are designed to provide cost-effective and rapid launch capabilities.

    1. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. A is true, but R is false
    4. A is false, but R is true
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    SSLV is built for low-cost, on-demand launches of small satellites.

  31. Q31Open question

    Which of the following are features of glacial landforms?

    1. Formation of moraines and drumlins
    2. Development of sand dunes
    3. Creation of coral reefs
    4. Formation of deltas
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Formation of moraines and drumlins

    Explanation

    Moraines and drumlins are glacial deposits.

  32. Q32Open question

    In the Wangala festival, the term ‘Rongchugala’ symbolizes:

    1. War
    2. Harvest celebration
    3. Mourning
    4. Isolation
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Harvest celebration

    Explanation

    Rongchugala is a ritual of the Garo post-harvest Wangala festival.

  33. Q33Open question

    Consider the following statements about the book ‘Playing It My Way’:

    1. It is an autobiography of a former Indian cricketer.
    2. It was written by a sports journalist.
    3. It focuses only on domestic cricket tournaments.
    4. It was published by the ICC.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) It is an autobiography of a former Indian cricketer.

    Explanation

    It is Sachin Tendulkar's autobiography (2014).

  34. Q34Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. The Finance Commission is a constitutional body. 2. Its recommendations are legally binding on the government.

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only 1

    Explanation

    The FC (Art. 280) is constitutional, but its recommendations are advisory.

  35. Q35Open question

    Who among the following was awarded Padma Shri for contribution to traditional Pattachitra art?

    1. Jitendra Maharana
    2. Rameshwar Broota
    3. Bhuri Bai
    4. Syed Haider Raza
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Jitendra Maharana

    Explanation

    As per the key, Jitendra Maharana; Bhuri Bai is a Bhil artist and Raza and Broota are modern painters.

  36. Q36Open question

    The folk dance ‘Chhau’ is associated with which region?

    1. Rajasthan
    2. Eastern India
    3. Western Himalayas
    4. Deccan Plateau
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Eastern India

    Explanation

    Chhau is performed in Odisha, Jharkhand and West Bengal.

  37. Q37Open question

    A raga that uses five notes is classified under which jaati?

    1. Sampoorna
    2. Shadav
    3. Audav
    4. Mishra
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Audav

    Explanation

    Audav = 5 notes, Shadav = 6, Sampoorna = 7.

  38. Q38Open question

    Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with Mauryan pillar/edict locations?

    1. Vaishali – Bihar
    2. Dhauli – Rajasthan
    3. Rampurva – Uttar Pradesh
    4. Amaravati – Karnataka
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Vaishali – Bihar

    Explanation

    Vaishali is in Bihar; Dhauli is Odisha, Rampurva is Bihar, Amaravati is Andhra Pradesh.

  39. Q39Open question

    Ox-bow lakes are most commonly formed in:

    1. Glacial regions
    2. Floodplains of meandering rivers
    3. Coastal deserts
    4. Mountain plateaus
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Floodplains of meandering rivers

    Explanation

    Cut-off meander loops form ox-bow lakes.

  40. Q40Open question

    Which river basin is associated with major iron ore deposits in India?

    1. Mahanadi basin
    2. Godavari basin
    3. Narmada basin
    4. Kaveri basin
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Mahanadi basin

    Explanation

    Odisha-Chhattisgarh iron ore belts lie largely in the Mahanadi basin.

  41. Q41Open question

    Which of the following statements about the SAFF Championship final (2021 edition, played 2021) is correct?

    1. India defeated Nepal in Kathmandu.
    2. India defeated Bangladesh in Dhaka.
    3. India defeated Nepal in Malé.
    4. India defeated Sri Lanka in Colombo.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) India defeated Nepal in Malé.

    Explanation

    India beat Nepal 3-0 in the final at Malé in October 2021 (the source mislabels it as 2022).

  42. Q42Open question

    Which of the following statements about India’s cement industry is correct?

    1. It depends entirely on imported limestone.
    2. It is one of the largest producers in the world.
    3. Production is limited to coastal states.
    4. It is controlled only by public sector companies.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) It is one of the largest producers in the world.

    Explanation

    India is the world's second-largest cement producer.

  43. Q43Open question

    The main objective of the ‘National Green Hydrogen Mission’ is to:

    1. Promote nuclear energy
    2. Develop hydrogen as a clean energy source
    3. Expand coal mining
    4. Increase petroleum imports
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Develop hydrogen as a clean energy source

    Explanation

    It aims to make India a hub for green hydrogen.

  44. Q44Open question

    Who scored the highest number of goals for India in the 1952 Helsinki Olympic hockey final?

    1. Balbir Singh Sr.
    2. Dhyan Chand
    3. Roop Singh
    4. Leslie Claudius
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Balbir Singh Sr.

    Explanation

    Balbir Singh Sr. scored 5 of India's 6 goals against the Netherlands.

  45. Q45Open question

    Which of the following statements about football rules is correct?

    1. A goalkeeper cannot handle the ball inside the penalty area.
    2. Offside is judged only when the ball is passed forward.
    3. A player is sent off for receiving two yellow cards.
    4. A corner kick is taken from the centre circle.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A player is sent off for receiving two yellow cards.

    Explanation

    Two yellow cards in a match result in a red card.

  46. Q46Open question

    When did India successfully conduct the first Gaganyaan TV-D1 test flight?

    1. October 2022
    2. October 2023
    3. January 2024
    4. December 2024
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) October 2023

    Explanation

    TV-D1 flew on 21 October 2023.

  47. Q47Open question

    Which initiative was launched by India under G20 to promote startup ecosystems among member nations?

    1. G20 Innovation Network
    2. Startup Bridge Forum
    3. Global MSME Platform
    4. Digital Economy Alliance
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Startup Bridge Forum

    Explanation

    As per the key. Note: India's G20 presidency created the 'Startup20 Engagement Group', which is not among the options.

  48. Q48Open question

    Consider the following statements regarding renewable energy certificates (RECs): 1. They are issued for electricity generated from renewable sources. 2. They help utilities meet renewable purchase obligations.

    1. Only 1 is correct
    2. Only 2 is correct
    3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
    4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

    Explanation

    RECs certify renewable generation and are used to meet RPOs.

  49. Q49Open question

    A new All-India Service can be created by Parliament through a resolution passed in the:

    1. Lok Sabha
    2. Rajya Sabha
    3. Supreme Court
    4. State Assemblies
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Rajya Sabha

    Explanation

    Article 312 needs a Rajya Sabha resolution by two-thirds present and voting.

  50. Q50Open question

    In tribal traditions of Odisha, the ‘Chaitra Parva’ festival primarily symbolizes:

    1. Beginning of the agricultural season
    2. Victory in war
    3. Funeral rituals
    4. Trade activities
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Beginning of the agricultural season

    Explanation

    Chaitra Parva marks the new agricultural year for tribes in Odisha.

  51. Q51Open question

    A retailer sells an item for ₹Z with a loss of 12%. He then marks it at 0.9Z and gives a 10% discount. What is the overall loss percentage?

    1. 19.6%
    2. 28.7%
    3. 21.2%
    4. 26.4%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 28.7%

    Explanation

    Z = 0.88 CP; new SP = 0.9Z × 0.9 = 0.81Z = 0.7128 CP, a loss ≈ 28.7%.

  52. Q52Open question

    A vendor mixes two types of tea—one costing ₹150 per kg and another costing ₹200 per kg—in the ratio 2 : 3. If he sells the mixture at ₹180 per kg, find his gain or loss percent.

    1. 4% Gain
    2. 4% Loss
    3. 6% Loss
    4. no loss, no gain
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) no loss, no gain

    Explanation

    CP = (300 + 600)/5 = ₹180, equal to the SP.

  53. Q53Open question

    A merchant incurred a loss of ₹200 on an item. If the loss percentage was 8%, what was the cost price?

    1. ₹2,250
    2. ₹2,500
    3. ₹2,750
    4. ₹3,000
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) ₹2,500

    Explanation

    200/0.08 = ₹2,500.

  54. Q54Open question

    Two concentric circles have circumferences in ratio 4:7. If the smaller circle has area 80 m², what is the approximate area of the larger circle?

    1. 245 m²
    2. 280 m²
    3. 308 m²
    4. 336 m²
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 245 m²

    Explanation

    Areas go as 16 : 49: 80 × 49/16 = 245 m².

  55. Q55Open question

    The average monthly salary of 30 workers is ₹35,000. The average salary of 10 junior staff is ₹25,000. What is the average salary for the remaining workers?

    1. ₹37,500
    2. ₹40,000
    3. ₹42,500
    4. ₹45,000
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) ₹40,000

    Explanation

    (10,50,000 − 2,50,000)/20 = ₹40,000.

  56. Q56Open question

    A sum of ₹1,25,000 is invested at 12% compound interest per annum. After how many years will it grow to ₹1,75,616?

    1. 2
    2. 3
    3. 4
    4. 5
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 3

    Explanation

    1,75,616/1,25,000 = 1.404928 = 1.12³, so 3 years.

  57. Q57Open question

    A student's average score in 12 exams is 72. If his highest score is excluded, the average becomes 70. What is his highest score?

    1. 92
    2. 94
    3. 96
    4. 98
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 94

    Explanation

    864 − 770 = 94.

  58. Q58Open question

    P and Q start a business. P invests 3 times the capital of Q. After 7 months, P withdraws one-third of his capital, and Q doubles his capital. If the total duration of the business is 12 months and the total profit is ₹60,000, find Q's share.

    1. ₹12,000
    2. ₹21,250
    3. ₹18,000
    4. ₹20,250
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) ₹21,250

    Explanation

    With Q = x: P = 3x×7 + 2x×5 = 31x; Q = x×7 + 2x×5 = 17x. Q's share = 17/48 × 60,000 = ₹21,250.

  59. Q59Open question

    M and N share a rented property. M uses 16 machines for 6 months, while N uses 24 equipment for 5 months and 36 tools for 4 months. If 3 machines are equivalent to 6 equipment, and 2 equipment equal 3 tools, what portion of rent does M pay?

    1. 10/17
    2. 9/17
    3. 15/17
    4. 8/17
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 8/17

    Explanation

    In tool-months: M = 96 machine-months = 288; N = 120 equipment-months (= 180) + 144 = 324. M's share = 288/612 = 8/17.

  60. Q60Open question

    X, Y, and Z invested ₹50,000, ₹75,000, and ₹1,25,000 respectively in a business. If the total profit is ₹50,000, what is Y's share?

    1. ₹10,000
    2. ₹12,500
    3. ₹15,000
    4. ₹17,500
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) ₹15,000

    Explanation

    Ratio 2 : 3 : 5, so Y = 3/10 × 50,000 = ₹15,000.

  61. Q61Open question

    A bookstore ordered 10 boxes of hardcover books and some boxes of paperback books. Hardcovers cost twice as much per box as paperbacks. Due to an order error, the quantities were swapped, increasing the bill by 20%. What is the ratio of hardcover to paperback boxes originally?

    1. 4:7
    2. 1:3
    3. 2:3
    4. 3:2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 4:7

    Explanation

    2x + 10 = 1.2(20 + x) gives x = 17.5, so 10 : 17.5 = 4 : 7.

  62. Q62Open question

    Table: Test Scores (out of 100) Student | Test 1 | Test 2 | Test 3 Student X | 82 | 78 | 85 Student Y | 88 | 86 | 90 Which student had a higher average score?

    1. Student X
    2. Student Y
    3. Both are equal
    4. Cannot be determined
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Student Y

    Explanation

    X averages ≈ 81.7 and Y = 88.

  63. Q63Open question

    A pipe is divided in the ratio 3/7 : 2/5 : 3/4. Total length = 8 m. Find the largest piece.

    1. 3.2 m
    2. 3.8 m
    3. 4.0 m
    4. 4.4 m
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 3.8 m

    Explanation

    × 140 gives 60 : 56 : 105 (sum 221); largest = 105/221 × 8 ≈ 3.8 m.

  64. Q64Open question

    If P is 30% more than Q, and R is 25% more than P, then what is Q : R?

    1. 4 : 5
    2. 8 : 13
    3. 5 : 4
    4. 33 : 20
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 8 : 13

    Explanation

    R = 1.25 × 1.3Q = 1.625Q, so Q : R = 8 : 13.

  65. Q65Open question

    An item is marked at ₹850. A dealer allows 20% discount and still makes 12% profit. What is the cost price (approximate)?

    1. ₹580
    2. ₹610
    3. ₹607
    4. ₹604
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) ₹607

    Explanation

    SP = 680, so CP = 680/1.12 ≈ ₹607.

  66. Q66Open question

    A pump fills 0.625 liters of water every second. How much does it fill in 6 seconds?

    1. 3.5 L
    2. 3.75 L
    3. 4.0 L
    4. 4.25 L
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 3.75 L

    Explanation

    0.625 × 6 = 3.75 L.

  67. Q67Open question

    A container holds 4,000 milliliters of liquid. If its full capacity is 0.008 kiloliters, what percentage is empty?

    1. 25%
    2. 40%
    3. 50%
    4. 60%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 50%

    Explanation

    Capacity 8,000 mL; 4,000 mL is filled, so 50% is empty.

  68. Q68Open question

    A manufacturer sells goods to a wholesaler at a 20% discount on marked price plus a 5% surcharge. The wholesaler then sells the goods at ₹3,150 more than his cost price, making a profit of 25%. What was the marked price?

    1. ₹15,000
    2. ₹17,500
    3. ₹19,200
    4. ₹20,480
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) ₹15,000

    Explanation

    Wholesaler's cost = 3,150/0.25 = 12,600 = MP × 0.8 × 1.05, so MP = ₹15,000.

  69. Q69Open question

    Three types of grain costing ₹50/kg, ₹70/kg, and an unknown price are mixed in ratio 2:3:2. If sold at ₹64/kg with 20% profit, what is the price of the third variety?

    1. ₹31.6/kg
    2. ₹32.8/kg
    3. ₹24.2/kg
    4. ₹36/kg
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) ₹31.6/kg

    Explanation

    Mixture CP = 53.33; (100 + 210 + 2x)/7 = 53.33 gives x ≈ ₹31.7 (≈ 31.6).

  70. Q70Open question

    Three concentric circles have diameters in arithmetic progression. Smallest circumference is 8π cm, largest is 18π cm. What is the middle circumference?

    1. 11π cm
    2. 12π cm
    3. 13π cm
    4. 14π cm
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 13π cm

    Explanation

    Diameters 8 and 18, so the middle is 13: circumference 13π.

  71. Q71Open question

    A sphere and a cone have the same volume and base radius. Find the ratio of height of cone to its radius.

    1. 2:1
    2. 3:1
    3. 4:1
    4. 8:1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 4:1

    Explanation

    (4/3)πr³ = (1/3)πr²h gives h = 4r.

  72. Q72Open question

    A person invests ₹24,000 in two schemes—Scheme A at 18% and Scheme B at 12%, both simple interest. After 1 year, total interest is ₹3,840. How much in Scheme A?

    1. ₹8,000
    2. ₹10,000
    3. ₹12,000
    4. ₹16,000
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) ₹16,000

    Explanation

    0.18A + 0.12(24,000 − A) = 3,840 gives 0.06A = 960, A = ₹16,000.

  73. Q73Open question

    A hexagonal prism has a regular hexagon base with side 8 cm and height 12 cm. What is its volume?

    1. 1920√3 cm³
    2. 1728√2 cm³
    3. 1152√3 cm³
    4. 2304√3 cm³
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1152√3 cm³

    Explanation

    Base = (3√3/2) × 64 = 96√3; × 12 = 1152√3 cm³.

  74. Q74Open question

    A solid cylinder (radius 6 cm) has five cylindrical holes (radius 1.5 cm each) drilled throughout its length. Approximately what percent of volume is removed?

    1. 25.25%
    2. 36.60%
    3. 42.75%
    4. 31.25%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 31.25%

    Explanation

    5 × 1.5² / 6² = 11.25/36 = 31.25%.

  75. Q75Open question

    A sector has central angle 144° and radius 7 cm. Another sector with the same radius has a central angle 4π/5 radians. What is the ratio of their areas?

    1. 1:1
    2. 4:5
    3. 5:6
    4. 7:8
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1:1

    Explanation

    4π/5 rad = 144°, so the areas are equal.

  76. Q76Open question

    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: They reverted back to their original plan after the discussion.

    1. returned back to their plan
    2. reverted to original plan
    3. reverted to their original plan
    4. went back to original plan
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) reverted to their original plan

    Explanation

    'Revert back' is redundant; use 'reverted to'.

  77. Q77Open question

    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: DISCORD

    1. Uproar
    2. Concord
    3. Racket
    4. Clatter
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Concord

    Explanation

    Discord (disagreement) is the opposite of concord (harmony).

  78. Q78Open question

    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: RUSE

    1. Trickery
    2. Candor
    3. Deceit
    4. Fraud
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Candor

    Explanation

    A ruse is a trick; candor (honesty) is the opposite.

  79. Q79Open question

    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: DETRIMENTAL

    1. Damaging
    2. Beneficial
    3. Soothing
    4. Supportive
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Damaging

    Explanation

    Detrimental means harmful or damaging.

  80. Q80Open question

    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: The man was charged for fraud.

    1. charged with fraud
    2. charged by fraud
    3. charged of fraud
    4. charged on fraud
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) charged with fraud

    Explanation

    The idiom is 'charged with' an offence.

  81. Q81Open question

    Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: The report will have been submitted by the analyst before the deadline.

    1. The analyst will submit the report before the deadline.
    2. The analyst had submitted the report before the deadline.
    3. The analyst has submitted the report before the deadline.
    4. The analyst will have submitted the report before the deadline.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) The analyst will have submitted the report before the deadline.

    Explanation

    Future perfect passive becomes future perfect active.

  82. Q82Open question

    Select the correct option: Each of the reports ____________ been verified before submission.

    1. has
    2. have
    3. is
    4. has been being
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) has

    Explanation

    'Each' is singular: 'has been verified'.

  83. Q83Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: India’s COVID-19 vaccination programme—vast in ambition and reach—had to navigate a web of logistical hurdles, social resistance, and policy-level pressures. With a population exceeding a billion, the country had to deliver doses amid shifting supplies, uneven healthcare infrastructure, and varying levels of public confidence. Early distribution patterns were notably uneven: metropolitan regions received a larger share of vaccines compared to rural and remote areas. This gap was driven by centralized decision-making as well as practical constraints like weak cold-chain networks outside cities. In many far-flung locations, unreliable electricity, limited storage, and difficult transport routes made safe delivery challenging. Alongside this, vaccine doubt grew as false claims circulated online, amplifying fears about side effects or alleged motives—particularly through local-language channels. CoWIN, the digital system for registration, was a major step forward, but it also unintentionally left out many who lacked smartphones, internet access, or the skills to use such platforms, widening the digital divide. Over time, the approach was adjusted through greater state-level involvement, community outreach via trusted local and religious figures, and the use of mobile vaccination teams to reach underserved populations. Meanwhile, domestic manufacturing—especially Covishield and Covaxin—reduced reliance on external supply lines and supported “Vaccine Maitri” diplomacy. In the end, the campaign revealed India’s ability to mobilize at scale while underlining the importance of trust-building, infrastructure strength, and inclusive planning in a digitally unequal society. What was one major unintended drawback linked to the CoWIN registration system?

    1. It worsened network speed in villages
    2. It caused official vaccination records to be incomplete
    3. It left out citizens with low digital awareness
    4. It resulted in frequent cyber-attacks on user accounts
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) It left out citizens with low digital awareness

    Explanation

    CoWIN excluded those lacking smartphones, internet or digital skills.

  84. Q84Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: India’s COVID-19 vaccination programme—vast in ambition and reach—had to navigate a web of logistical hurdles, social resistance, and policy-level pressures. With a population exceeding a billion, the country had to deliver doses amid shifting supplies, uneven healthcare infrastructure, and varying levels of public confidence. Early distribution patterns were notably uneven: metropolitan regions received a larger share of vaccines compared to rural and remote areas. This gap was driven by centralized decision-making as well as practical constraints like weak cold-chain networks outside cities. In many far-flung locations, unreliable electricity, limited storage, and difficult transport routes made safe delivery challenging. Alongside this, vaccine doubt grew as false claims circulated online, amplifying fears about side effects or alleged motives—particularly through local-language channels. CoWIN, the digital system for registration, was a major step forward, but it also unintentionally left out many who lacked smartphones, internet access, or the skills to use such platforms, widening the digital divide. Over time, the approach was adjusted through greater state-level involvement, community outreach via trusted local and religious figures, and the use of mobile vaccination teams to reach underserved populations. Meanwhile, domestic manufacturing—especially Covishield and Covaxin—reduced reliance on external supply lines and supported “Vaccine Maitri” diplomacy. In the end, the campaign revealed India’s ability to mobilize at scale while underlining the importance of trust-building, infrastructure strength, and inclusive planning in a digitally unequal society. According to the passage, why did cities get a larger share of vaccines in the early phase?

    1. Urban facilities produced more vaccines than rural centres
    2. Overseas supply disruptions alone created urban preference
    3. Rural communities rejected vaccination in large numbers
    4. Centralized control and weak rural logistics tilted allocation toward cities
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Centralized control and weak rural logistics tilted allocation toward cities

    Explanation

    The gap was due to centralised decisions and weak cold chains outside cities.

  85. Q85Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: India’s COVID-19 vaccination programme—vast in ambition and reach—had to navigate a web of logistical hurdles, social resistance, and policy-level pressures. With a population exceeding a billion, the country had to deliver doses amid shifting supplies, uneven healthcare infrastructure, and varying levels of public confidence. Early distribution patterns were notably uneven: metropolitan regions received a larger share of vaccines compared to rural and remote areas. This gap was driven by centralized decision-making as well as practical constraints like weak cold-chain networks outside cities. In many far-flung locations, unreliable electricity, limited storage, and difficult transport routes made safe delivery challenging. Alongside this, vaccine doubt grew as false claims circulated online, amplifying fears about side effects or alleged motives—particularly through local-language channels. CoWIN, the digital system for registration, was a major step forward, but it also unintentionally left out many who lacked smartphones, internet access, or the skills to use such platforms, widening the digital divide. Over time, the approach was adjusted through greater state-level involvement, community outreach via trusted local and religious figures, and the use of mobile vaccination teams to reach underserved populations. Meanwhile, domestic manufacturing—especially Covishield and Covaxin—reduced reliance on external supply lines and supported “Vaccine Maitri” diplomacy. In the end, the campaign revealed India’s ability to mobilize at scale while underlining the importance of trust-building, infrastructure strength, and inclusive planning in a digitally unequal society. Which step mentioned in the passage helped address vaccine rumours and hesitancy?

    1. Enforcing a nationwide ban on social media platforms
    2. Relying on community figures and mobile vaccination outreach
    3. Depending only on vaccines sourced from abroad
    4. Limiting access to local news in rural regions
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Relying on community figures and mobile vaccination outreach

    Explanation

    Outreach through trusted local and religious figures and mobile teams.

  86. Q86Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: India’s COVID-19 vaccination programme—vast in ambition and reach—had to navigate a web of logistical hurdles, social resistance, and policy-level pressures. With a population exceeding a billion, the country had to deliver doses amid shifting supplies, uneven healthcare infrastructure, and varying levels of public confidence. Early distribution patterns were notably uneven: metropolitan regions received a larger share of vaccines compared to rural and remote areas. This gap was driven by centralized decision-making as well as practical constraints like weak cold-chain networks outside cities. In many far-flung locations, unreliable electricity, limited storage, and difficult transport routes made safe delivery challenging. Alongside this, vaccine doubt grew as false claims circulated online, amplifying fears about side effects or alleged motives—particularly through local-language channels. CoWIN, the digital system for registration, was a major step forward, but it also unintentionally left out many who lacked smartphones, internet access, or the skills to use such platforms, widening the digital divide. Over time, the approach was adjusted through greater state-level involvement, community outreach via trusted local and religious figures, and the use of mobile vaccination teams to reach underserved populations. Meanwhile, domestic manufacturing—especially Covishield and Covaxin—reduced reliance on external supply lines and supported “Vaccine Maitri” diplomacy. In the end, the campaign revealed India’s ability to mobilize at scale while underlining the importance of trust-building, infrastructure strength, and inclusive planning in a digitally unequal society. Which option most accurately captures the central message of the passage?

    1. India’s pharmaceutical exports gained global dominance
    2. Vaccine side effects were the biggest threat to public health
    3. Crisis management alone defined India’s vaccination plan
    4. Public health delivery was shaped by digital inequality and inclusion gaps
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Public health delivery was shaped by digital inequality and inclusion gaps

    Explanation

    The passage stresses inclusion, trust and the digital divide.

  87. Q87Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: India’s COVID-19 vaccination programme—vast in ambition and reach—had to navigate a web of logistical hurdles, social resistance, and policy-level pressures. With a population exceeding a billion, the country had to deliver doses amid shifting supplies, uneven healthcare infrastructure, and varying levels of public confidence. Early distribution patterns were notably uneven: metropolitan regions received a larger share of vaccines compared to rural and remote areas. This gap was driven by centralized decision-making as well as practical constraints like weak cold-chain networks outside cities. In many far-flung locations, unreliable electricity, limited storage, and difficult transport routes made safe delivery challenging. Alongside this, vaccine doubt grew as false claims circulated online, amplifying fears about side effects or alleged motives—particularly through local-language channels. CoWIN, the digital system for registration, was a major step forward, but it also unintentionally left out many who lacked smartphones, internet access, or the skills to use such platforms, widening the digital divide. Over time, the approach was adjusted through greater state-level involvement, community outreach via trusted local and religious figures, and the use of mobile vaccination teams to reach underserved populations. Meanwhile, domestic manufacturing—especially Covishield and Covaxin—reduced reliance on external supply lines and supported “Vaccine Maitri” diplomacy. In the end, the campaign revealed India’s ability to mobilize at scale while underlining the importance of trust-building, infrastructure strength, and inclusive planning in a digitally unequal society. What best describes the writer’s attitude toward India’s vaccination drive?

    1. Mocking and dismissive
    2. Evaluative and balanced with guarded optimism
    3. Celebratory without pointing out flaws
    4. Harshly negative and fear-inducing
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Evaluative and balanced with guarded optimism

    Explanation

    It notes both achievements and shortcomings.

  88. Q88Open question

    Convert to indirect speech: She said, “Where have you been living for the past few months?”

    1. She asked where had I been living for the past few months.
    2. She asked where I had been living for the past few months.
    3. She asked where I have been living for the past few months.
    4. She said where I had been living for the past few months.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) She asked where I had been living for the past few months.

    Explanation

    Reported questions use 'asked', statement word order and a backshifted tense.

  89. Q89Open question

    Convert to direct speech: The manager said that the employees were adapting to the new system quickly.

    1. “The employees are adapting to the new system quickly,” said the manager.
    2. “The employees were adapting to the new system quickly,” said the manager.
    3. “The employees adapted to the new system quickly,” said the manager.
    4. “The employees had adapted to the new system quickly,” said the manager.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) “The employees are adapting to the new system quickly,” said the manager.

    Explanation

    Past continuous in reported speech comes from present continuous.

  90. Q90Open question

    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: That none of the applicants considered the policy fair (1)/ is hardly shocking given (2)/ that neither the supervisor nor the HR officer (3)/ were informed in advance. (4)

    1. (1)
    2. (2)
    3. (3)
    4. (4)
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) (4)

    Explanation

    'Neither ... nor' with a singular noun nearest the verb takes 'was informed'.

  91. Q91Open question

    Choose the correct one-word substitute for: “A professional who makes detailed maps showing terrain/features”.

    1. Archivist
    2. Topographer
    3. Pharmacist
    4. Sculptor
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Topographer

    Explanation

    A topographer maps surface features.

  92. Q92Open question

    Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Get cold feet

    1. To lose courage at the last moment
    2. To request urgent help
    3. To act bravely under pressure
    4. To accept failure politely
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) To lose courage at the last moment

    Explanation

    'Get cold feet' means to lose nerve.

  93. Q93Open question

    Change the following from active to passive: Will the committee review the amended policy immediately?

    1. Will the amended policy be reviewed immediately by the committee?
    2. Will the amended policy being reviewed immediately by the committee?
    3. Will the amended policy have been reviewed immediately by the committee?
    4. Will the amended policy reviewed immediately by the committee?
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Will the amended policy be reviewed immediately by the committee?

    Explanation

    Future simple passive: will ... be + V3.

  94. Q94Open question

    Spot the correct spelling of microorganism-based pollution cleanup.

    1. Bioremediation
    2. Bioremydiation
    3. Biorimediation
    4. Bioremedation
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Bioremediation

    Explanation

    The correct spelling is Bioremediation.

  95. Q95Open question

    Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. It begins with identifying a clear question and collecting relevant information through observation or study. 2. Scientific inquiry plays a crucial role in developing reliable knowledge and improving human life. 3. The results are then analysed and presented so others can examine, replicate, and evaluate them. 4. This approach may be exploratory to understand ideas, or experimental to test a specific hypothesis.

    1. 2, 1, 4, 3
    2. 1, 2, 4, 3
    3. 2, 4, 1, 3
    4. 4, 1, 3, 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2, 1, 4, 3

    Explanation

    Intro (2), process start (1), types (4), results (3).

  96. Q96Open question

    Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. The most common model is a peer-to-peer setup, where control is shared rather than held by one authority. 2. A decentralized ledger system records transactions across multiple nodes instead of storing them in a single place. 3. This shared structure increases trust because updates are accepted only after agreement across the network. 4. It works by distributing identical copies of the record to many computers connected through the internet.

    1. 2, 4, 1, 3
    2. 4, 2, 1, 3
    3. 1, 4, 2, 3
    4. 2, 1, 3, 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2, 4, 1, 3

    Explanation

    Definition (2), mechanism (4), model (1), benefit (3).

  97. Q97Open question

    Select the correct option: The panel opted ___________ extending the deadline due to strict compliance rules.

    1. for
    2. against
    3. with
    4. on
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) against

    Explanation

    Strict rules mean the panel decided against extending.

  98. Q98Open question

    Select the correct option: Neither the captain nor the players _______________ ready to begin without the referee.

    1. is
    2. were
    3. has been
    4. was
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) were

    Explanation

    The verb agrees with the nearer subject 'players': 'were'.

  99. Q99Open question

    Select the sentence with the correct homonym of the highlighted word: The guards stood in pike formation along the causeway.

    1. At dawn, the angler reeled in a pike from the quiet river.
    2. The captive was sentenced to be displayed on the pike as a warning.
    3. The long pike of the foot-soldier helped break the rival ranks.
    4. Beside the knight’s shield, the pike reflected the torchlight.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) At dawn, the angler reeled in a pike from the quiet river.

    Explanation

    In (a) 'pike' is a fish; the others use pike as a spear or weapon.

  100. Q100Open question

    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: Neither the analysis of revenue nor the forecast of expenditure patterns (1)/ seem to reflect the supply bottlenecks (2)/ that medium-sized manufacturers experience (3)/ during sudden market contractions. (4)

    1. (1)
    2. (2)
    3. (3)
    4. (4)
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) (2)

    Explanation

    The nearer subject 'the forecast' is singular: 'seems'.

Ready to test yourself?

Attempt all 100 questions against the clock and see your score.

Start timed test