1. Q1Open question

    Identify the odd one out:

    1. A3 : D6 : G9
    2. B4 : E7 : H10
    3. C5 : F8 : I11
    4. D6 : G9 : K13
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) D6 : G9 : K13

    Explanation

    In the others letters jump +3 and each number is the letter's position + 2; in (d) G → K jumps +4.

  2. Q2Open question

    Identify the group that does NOT follow the same pattern:

    1. B2 : E5 : H8
    2. C3 : F6 : I9
    3. D4 : G7 : J10
    4. E5 : H9 : K13
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) E5 : H9 : K13

    Explanation

    Numbers should equal letter positions; H is 8, not 9.

  3. Q3Open question

    If FLOWER is coded as GMPXFS, then GARDEN is coded as:

    1. HBSEFO
    2. HBSEEN
    3. HBSFEO
    4. HBSFEN
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) HBSEFO

    Explanation

    Each letter +1: GARDEN → HBSEFO.

  4. Q4Open question

    A man says, “She is the daughter of my father’s only son.” How is the woman related to the man?

    1. Sister
    2. Daughter
    3. Wife
    4. Niece
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Daughter

    Explanation

    His father's only son is the man himself, so she is his daughter.

  5. Q5Open question

    Introducing a woman, Ravi says, “She is the wife of my father’s only son.” How is the woman related to Ravi?

    1. Sister-in-law
    2. Mother
    3. Wife
    4. Aunt
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Wife

    Explanation

    His father's only son is Ravi, so she is his wife.

  6. Q6Open question

    A says, “My mother’s brother is the father of B.” How is B related to A?

    1. Cousin
    2. Brother
    3. Uncle
    4. Nephew
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Cousin

    Explanation

    B is the child of A's maternal uncle: a cousin.

  7. Q7Open question

    There are 45 students in a row. Rohan is 18th from the left and Aman is 20th from the right. How many students are between them?

    1. 6
    2. 7
    3. 8
    4. 9
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 7

    Explanation

    18 + 20 = 38, so 45 − 38 = 7 students lie between them.

  8. Q8Open question

    Which of the following pairs of addresses are identical? 1. Mr. Arun, 54/B Lake View, Bhopal, 462016 2. Mr Arun, 54-B, Lake View, Bhopal - 462016 3. Mr. Arun, 54/B Lakeview, Bhopal, 462016 4. Mr. Arjun, 54/B Lake View, Bhopal, 462016

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 2 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2

    Explanation

    The key gives 1 and 2 (same person, flat, locality and PIN). Strictly, none are character-for-character identical (2 uses 'Mr', '54-B' and '-'), so this question is flawed.

  9. Q9Open question

    Find the missing term: SHOP : TIPQ :: MEGA : ?

    1. NEHB
    2. NFHB
    3. NFHD
    4. NFGB
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) NFHB

    Explanation

    Each letter +1: MEGA → NFHB.

  10. Q10Open question

    Which of the following pairs are exactly the same? 1. Dr. Neha Jain, 21 Park Street, Jaipur-302001 2. Dr. Neha Jain, 21 Park Street, Jaipur-302001 3. Dr. Neha Jain, 21 Park St., Jaipur, 302001 4. Dr. Neha Jaiswal, 21 Park Street, Jaipur, 302001

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2

    Explanation

    1 and 2 are identical.

  11. Q11Open question

    If + means ×, − means ÷, × means + and ÷ means −, then: 12 + 6 × 4 − 2 ÷ 2 = ?

    1. 68
    2. 70
    3. 74
    4. 72
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 72

    Explanation

    12 × 6 + 4 ÷ 2 − 2 = 72 + 2 − 2 = 72.

  12. Q12Open question

    Apply the same rearrangement pattern: PLAYING : GNIYALP :: READING : ?

    1. GNIDARE
    2. GINDAER
    3. GNIDAER
    4. GNIRDAE
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) GNIDAER

    Explanation

    The word is reversed: READING → GNIDAER.

  13. Q13Open question

    Find the missing term: BDF, EGH, HJJ, ?

    1. KLM
    2. KNL
    3. KML
    4. JKL
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) KML

    Explanation

    1st and 2nd letters +3, 3rd letter +2: KML.

  14. Q14Open question

    Watch : Time :: Barometer : ?

    1. Heat
    2. Pressure
    3. Speed
    4. Distance
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Pressure

    Explanation

    A barometer measures atmospheric pressure.

  15. Q15Open question

    Find the missing number: 2, 6, 12, 20, ?, 42

    1. 28
    2. 30
    3. 32
    4. 36
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 30

    Explanation

    n(n + 1): 5 × 6 = 30.

  16. Q16Open question

    Find the missing group: EFG, HIJ, LMN, ?

    1. OPQ
    2. NOP
    3. KLM
    4. QRS
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) QRS

    Explanation

    Gaps between groups grow by 1 (G→H skips 0, J→L skips 1, N→Q skips 2): QRS.

  17. Q17Open question

    Accused : Crime :: Student : ?

    1. School
    2. Teacher
    3. Examination
    4. Degree
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Examination

    Explanation

    As per the key, an accused faces a crime charge; a student faces an examination.

  18. Q18Open question

    Complete the series: B E H, D G J, F I L, ?

    1. H K N
    2. G J M
    3. I L O
    4. H J M
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) H K N

    Explanation

    Each letter +2: HKN.

  19. Q19Open question

    A says to B, “The woman I met is the daughter of your mother.” How is the woman related to B?

    1. Sister
    2. Mother
    3. Aunt
    4. Cousin
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Sister

    Explanation

    The daughter of B's mother is B's sister.

  20. Q20Open question

    What comes next? 2, 6, 14, 30, ?

    1. 46
    2. 58
    3. 62
    4. 60
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 62

    Explanation

    ×2 + 2: 30 × 2 + 2 = 62.

  21. Q21Open question

    Find the missing term: MNO, QRS, UVW, ?

    1. XYZ
    2. WXY
    3. YZA
    4. TUV
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) YZA

    Explanation

    Each group starts 4 letters later: YZA.

  22. Q22Open question

    If the letters of the word COMPUTER are arranged alphabetically, how many letters will have the same position as in the original word?

    1. One
    2. Two
    3. Three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Two

    Explanation

    CEMOPRTU: C (1st) and M (3rd) keep their positions.

  23. Q23Open question

    A set of letters is followed by the product of their alphabetical positions. ACE : 15 :: BDF : ?

    1. 24
    2. 48
    3. 36
    4. 60
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 48

    Explanation

    2 × 4 × 6 = 48.

  24. Q24Open question

    Complete the series: XZB − UWY − RTV − ?

    1. OQI
    2. OQH
    3. PUI
    4. OQS
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) OQS

    Explanation

    Each letter −3: OQS.

  25. Q25Open question

    Identify the number which does NOT satisfy: Sum of digits is a factor of the number.

    1. 24
    2. 36
    3. 42
    4. 39
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 39

    Explanation

    39: digit sum 12, and 39 is not divisible by 12.

  26. Q26Open question

    In judo, which action results in scoring an ippon?

    1. Stepping outside the mat
    2. Executing a perfect throw
    3. Holding opponent’s uniform
    4. Verbal warning
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Executing a perfect throw

    Explanation

    A clean, controlled throw scores ippon (full point).

  27. Q27Open question

    Which of the following statements about the Baisakhi festival is correct?

    1. It marks the harvest season in Punjab
    2. It is celebrated only in winter
    3. It is a Buddhist festival
    4. It is observed during monsoon
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) It marks the harvest season in Punjab

    Explanation

    Baisakhi (April) marks the rabi harvest in Punjab.

  28. Q28Open question

    The approximate percentage of nitrogen in Earth’s atmosphere is:

    1. 58%
    2. 68%
    3. 78%
    4. 88%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 78%

    Explanation

    Nitrogen makes up about 78% of air.

  29. Q29Open question

    Which statement correctly describes rivers in arid regions?

    1. Most rivers are perennial
    2. Rivers often dry up seasonally
    3. Rivers originate from glaciers
    4. Rivers flow in deep valleys
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Rivers often dry up seasonally

    Explanation

    Arid-region rivers are mostly ephemeral.

  30. Q30Open question

    Which of the following Padma award and field pairs is correctly matched?

    1. Bhuri Bai – Tribal Art
    2. Rakesh Sharma – Literature
    3. Milkha Singh – Agriculture
    4. Satyajit Ray – Sports
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Bhuri Bai – Tribal Art

    Explanation

    Bhuri Bai (Bhil painter) received the Padma Shri for art.

  31. Q31Open question

    How are Money Bills treated in Parliament under the Constitution?

    1. Rajya Sabha has equal powers
    2. Rajya Sabha can only delay indefinitely
    3. Rajya Sabha can make recommendations within 14 days
    4. Rajya Sabha can reject Money Bills
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Rajya Sabha can make recommendations within 14 days

    Explanation

    Article 109: the Rajya Sabha must return a Money Bill with recommendations within 14 days.

  32. Q32Open question

    Statement I: Gandhara art was influenced by Greco-Roman styles. Statement II: Gandhara sculptures avoided depicting human figures.

    1. Statement I and II both are correct
    2. Only statement I is correct
    3. Only statement II is correct
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only statement I is correct

    Explanation

    Gandhara art shows Hellenistic influence and famously depicts the Buddha in human form.

  33. Q33Open question

    Which initiative was launched in 2024 to strengthen regional digital payment cooperation in South Asia?

    1. SAARC Digital Bridge
    2. Regional FinTech Framework
    3. South Asia Payment Connectivity Initiative
    4. Indo-Pacific Digital Corridor
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) South Asia Payment Connectivity Initiative

    Explanation

    As per the key. (Verify: this initiative name could not be independently confirmed.)

  34. Q34Open question

    Which wetland is famous for migratory birds in Rajasthan?

    1. Keoladeo National Park
    2. Dal Lake
    3. Chilika Lake
    4. Loktak Lake
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Keoladeo National Park

    Explanation

    Keoladeo (Bharatpur) is a Ramsar and World Heritage bird sanctuary.

  35. Q35Open question

    The Lavani dance (Maharashtra) is traditionally associated with which community?

    1. Farmers
    2. Fisherfolk
    3. Tribal groups
    4. Urban youth
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Farmers

    Explanation

    As per the key, Lavani is linked with rural/farming communities of Maharashtra.

  36. Q36Open question

    Difficulty in starting or stopping motion of a body is due to:

    1. Momentum
    2. Inertia
    3. Gravity
    4. Friction
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Inertia

    Explanation

    Inertia is resistance to a change in motion.

  37. Q37Open question

    Assertion (A): The National Green Hydrogen Mission promotes clean energy. Reason (R): It is implemented by the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy.

    1. Both A and R are true and R explains A
    2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
    3. A is true but R is false
    4. A is false but R is true
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A

    Explanation

    Both are true, but the implementing ministry doesn't explain the mission's purpose.

  38. Q38Open question

    Article 356 of the Constitution deals with:

    1. Goods and Services Tax
    2. President’s Rule in states
    3. Fundamental Rights
    4. Election of President
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) President’s Rule in states

    Explanation

    Article 356 covers President's Rule.

  39. Q39Open question

    Consider the statements about the novel ‘The Palace of Illusions’: Statement I: It retells the Mahabharata from Draupadi’s perspective. Statement II: It is a biography of an Indian freedom fighter. Statement III: It is a futuristic science fiction novel.

    1. Only statement 1 is correct
    2. Only statement 2 is correct
    3. Statements 2 and 3 are correct
    4. All statements are correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only statement 1 is correct

    Explanation

    Chitra Banerjee Divakaruni's novel narrates the Mahabharata through Draupadi.

  40. Q40Open question

    Which technological achievement was demonstrated in ISRO’s reusable launch vehicle landing experiment?

    1. Deep-space docking
    2. Autonomous precision landing
    3. Nuclear propulsion
    4. Underwater recovery
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Autonomous precision landing

    Explanation

    RLV-LEX demonstrated autonomous landing of a winged vehicle.

  41. Q41Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. The Supreme Court can transfer cases between High Courts. 2. Article 139A empowers the Supreme Court in this regard.

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Article 139A lets the SC transfer cases between High Courts.

  42. Q42Open question

    The Global Energy Transition Index is published by:

    1. World Bank
    2. World Economic Forum
    3. IMF
    4. UNESCO
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) World Economic Forum

    Explanation

    The WEF publishes the Energy Transition Index.

  43. Q43Open question

    Assertion (A): Census data is crucial for planning social welfare policies. Reason (R): Census operations are conducted every five years in India.

    1. Both A and R are true and R explains A
    2. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
    3. A is true but R is false
    4. A is false but R is true
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A is true but R is false

    Explanation

    India's census is decennial (every 10 years).

  44. Q44Open question

    The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam primarily relates to:

    1. Civil law
    2. Evidence law
    3. Contract law
    4. Administrative law
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Evidence law

    Explanation

    BSA 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act.

  45. Q45Open question

    In ancient Indian music, Desi Sangeet refers to:

    1. Folk traditions
    2. Vedic chants
    3. Court music
    4. Western classical music
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Folk traditions

    Explanation

    Desi sangeet is regional or folk music, as opposed to Marga (classical/sacred).

  46. Q46Open question

    Which of the following is a consumer goods industry product?

    1. Cement
    2. Steel
    3. Soap
    4. Aluminium
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Soap

    Explanation

    Soap is a consumer good; the others are basic or intermediate goods.

  47. Q47Open question

    In which Olympic Games did Vijender Singh win India's first-ever Olympic medal in boxing?

    1. 2008 Beijing
    2. 2004 Athens
    3. 2012 London
    4. 2016 Rio
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2008 Beijing

    Explanation

    Vijender won bronze at Beijing 2008.

  48. Q48Open question

    The Netaji Subhas National Institute of Sports is located in:

    1. Patiala
    2. Lucknow
    3. Pune
    4. Kolkata
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Patiala

    Explanation

    NIS is in Patiala, Punjab.

  49. Q49Open question

    The term ‘polygenic inheritance’ refers to:

    1. One gene controlling multiple traits
    2. Multiple genes controlling one trait
    3. Mutation in a single gene
    4. Duplication of chromosomes
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Multiple genes controlling one trait

    Explanation

    Polygenic traits (e.g. height, skin colour) are controlled by many genes.

  50. Q50Open question

    Read the statements below: 1. The Attorney General of India is appointed by the President of India. 2. The security deposit for contesting the Vice-President election is ₹15,000. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Only statement 1
    2. Only statement 2
    3. Both statements 1 and 2
    4. Neither statement 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both statements 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Article 76 (AG appointed by the President); the VP election deposit is ₹15,000.

  51. Q51Open question

    Train A leaves Station X at 5:00 AM at 50 km/h. Train B leaves Station Y at 7:30 AM at 80 km/h. Both trains move towards each other. Distance = 500 km. When do they meet?

    1. 10:30 AM
    2. 11:00 AM
    3. 10:23 AM
    4. 12:00 PM
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 10:23 AM

    Explanation

    By 7:30 A has covered 125 km; the remaining 375 km at 130 km/h takes ≈ 2 h 53 min, so they meet at ≈ 10:23 AM.

  52. Q52Open question

    A wholesaler marks up goods by 50% and gives a 12% trade discount. The retailer marks up by 20% and offers an 8% discount. The customer pays ₹12,216. What is the wholesaler's cost price approximately?

    1. ₹8,000
    2. ₹8,383
    3. ₹9,070
    4. ₹9,500
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) ₹8,383

    Explanation

    C × 1.5 × 0.88 × 1.2 × 0.92 = 1.45728C = 12,216, so C ≈ ₹8,383.

  53. Q53Open question

    A traveller goes from City P to Q at 24 km/h in 5 hours. To complete it in 3 hours, by how much should speed increase?

    1. 16 km/h
    2. 20 km/h
    3. 24 km/h
    4. 28 km/h
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 16 km/h

    Explanation

    120 km in 3 h needs 40 km/h, an increase of 16.

  54. Q54Open question

    The number of workers in two departments X and Y with different experience levels is shown: Experience Level | Dept X | Dept Y < 5 years | 8 | 6 5-10 years | 12 | 10 > 10 years | 5 | 4 What is the ratio of workers with < 10 years experience in Dept X to Dept Y?

    1. 2:1
    2. 20:6
    3. 4:3
    4. 5:4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 5:4

    Explanation

    X = 20, Y = 16, so 5 : 4.

  55. Q55Open question

    P, Q, and R invest ₹50,000, ₹75,000, and ₹1,00,000 respectively for 1 year. What is Q's share in ₹60,000 profit?

    1. ₹16,000
    2. ₹18,000
    3. ₹20,000
    4. ₹22,000
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) ₹20,000

    Explanation

    Ratio 2 : 3 : 4, so Q = 3/9 × 60,000 = ₹20,000.

  56. Q56Open question

    One grain is sold for ₹84/kg at 20% profit. Another is sold for ₹72/kg at 20% profit. Mixed in ratio 3:2 and sold at ₹78/kg, what is the profit/loss percentage?

    1. 10% profit
    2. 15.15% loss
    3. 18.18% profit
    4. 20% profit
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 18.18% profit

    Explanation

    CPs are ₹70 and ₹60; mix CP = (210 + 120)/5 = ₹66; 78/66 gives an 18.18% profit.

  57. Q57Open question

    X can do a job in 10 days, Y in 15 days. They work together for 4 days. What part of work remains?

    1. 1/6
    2. 1/5
    3. 1/4
    4. 1/3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1/3

    Explanation

    4 × (1/10 + 1/15) = 2/3 done, so 1/3 remains.

  58. Q58Open question

    What is the value of (0.2×0.2×0.2 + 0.04×0.04×0.04) / (0.4×0.4×0.4 + 0.08×0.08×0.08)?

    1. 0.015
    2. 0.125
    3. 0.035
    4. 0.145
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 0.125

    Explanation

    The denominator terms are double the numerator's, so the ratio is 1/2³ = 0.125.

  59. Q59Open question

    A merchant mixes 50 kg of rice costing ₹60/kg with another variety costing ₹90/kg. He sells at ₹75/kg with 8% profit. How much of the second variety (approximate) did he mix?

    1. 10 kg
    2. 15 kg
    3. 23 kg
    4. 25 kg
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 23 kg

    Explanation

    Mix CP = 75/1.08 ≈ 69.44. Alligation: x = 50 × 9.44/20.56 ≈ 23 kg.

  60. Q60Open question

    M and N invest ₹80,000 and ₹1,20,000 respectively. After one year, profit including 8% simple interest on capital is ₹30,000. What is M's share?

    1. ₹10,800
    2. ₹12,000
    3. ₹13,400
    4. ₹14,400
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) ₹12,000

    Explanation

    Interest: M 6,400, N 9,600. The remaining 14,000 splits 2 : 3, giving M 5,600; total ₹12,000.

  61. Q61Open question

    Three numbers are such that when the average of any two is added to the third, the results are 200, 180, and 160. What is the average of the three numbers?

    1. 80
    2. 85
    3. 90
    4. 95
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 90

    Explanation

    Adding all three: 2(a + b + c) = 540, so the sum is 270 and the average 90.

  62. Q62Open question

    A store sold 3 items with selling prices in ratio 4:5:6. Profit/loss: 25% profit, 15% loss, 20% profit respectively. What is the approximate total profit/loss percentage?

    1. 6.5% profit
    2. 8.52% loss
    3. 10% profit
    4. 10% loss
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 6.5% profit

    Explanation

    CP = 4/1.25 + 5/0.85 + 6/1.2 ≈ 14.08 against SP 15, a profit of ≈ 6.5%.

  63. Q63Open question

    Find the compound interest on ₹12,000 at 8% per annum for 2 years 6 months, compounded annually.

    1. ₹2,000
    2. ₹2,140.8
    3. ₹2,556.67
    4. ₹2,500
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) ₹2,556.67

    Explanation

    12,000 × 1.08² × 1.04 ≈ 14,556.67, so CI ≈ ₹2,556.67.

  64. Q64Open question

    A certain amount invested at 15% compound interest per annum, compounded annually, becomes ₹4,235 in 2 years. What is 120% of the principal?

    1. ₹3,080
    2. ₹3,200
    3. ₹3,500
    4. ₹3,840
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) ₹3,840

    Explanation

    P = 4,235/1.3225 ≈ 3,202; 120% ≈ ₹3,843 ≈ ₹3,840.

  65. Q65Open question

    Find the product: 1.5 × 3 1/3 × 2/5

    1. 2.0
    2. 2.5
    3. 3.0
    4. 3.5
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2.0

    Explanation

    1.5 × 10/3 × 2/5 = 2.

  66. Q66Open question

    Table - Sales of 3 Items over 3 Months Item | Jan | Feb | Mar X | 150 | 180 | 170 Y | 120 | 110 | 130 Z | 200 | 210 | 190 Which item had the highest average sales?

    1. X
    2. Y
    3. Z
    4. X and Z equal
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Z

    Explanation

    Totals: X 500, Y 360, Z 600.

  67. Q67Open question

    A company organized training for 120 employees and 15 supervisors. Each employee got a kit with items equal to 12% of total employees. Each supervisor got a kit with items equal to 20% of total employees. How many total kit items were distributed?

    1. 1800
    2. 2088
    3. 2100
    4. 2408
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2088

    Explanation

    120 × 14.4 + 15 × 24 = 1,728 + 360 = 2,088.

  68. Q68Open question

    A 50-litre mixture of oil and water has 16% water. How many litres of oil must be added to make water content 10%?

    1. 10 litres
    2. 15 litres
    3. 20 litres
    4. 30 litres
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 30 litres

    Explanation

    Water is 8 L, so the total must be 80 L: add 30 L of oil.

  69. Q69Open question

    X and Y complete a task in 14 days, Y and Z in 18 days. X works 6 days, Y works 8 days, Z works 12 days to complete it. How many days for Z alone (approximate)?

    1. 20 days
    2. 22 days
    3. 28 days
    4. 30 days
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 22 days

    Explanation

    6(X + Y) + 2(Y + Z) + 10Z = 1 gives 10Z = 1 − 6/14 − 2/18, so Z = 29/630 per day, ≈ 21.7 ≈ 22 days.

  70. Q70Open question

    A circular park with 8 m diameter is surrounded by a 0.5 m wide path. What is the percentage increase in area?

    1. 40%
    2. 26.66%
    3. 26.56%
    4. 65%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 26.56%

    Explanation

    (4.5² − 4²)/4² = 4.25/16 = 26.56%.

  71. Q71Open question

    Find the y-intercept of 5x + 3y = 15.

    1. 3
    2. 4
    3. 5
    4. 6
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 5

    Explanation

    At x = 0, y = 5.

  72. Q72Open question

    A sector with radius 12 cm has area 132 cm². Find the central angle.

    1. 105°
    2. 110°
    3. 115°
    4. 120°
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 105°

    Explanation

    θ = 132 × 360/((22/7) × 144) = 105°.

  73. Q73Open question

    A circular board has radius 3 m. Painting costs ₹50/m². If 15% is unpainted, what is the total cost?

    1. ₹1185
    2. ₹1202
    3. ₹1275
    4. ₹1350
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) ₹1202

    Explanation

    28.27 × 0.85 × 50 ≈ ₹1,202.

  74. Q74Open question

    Given x + 1/x = 5, find x³ + 1/x³.

    1. 100
    2. 110
    3. 120
    4. 125
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 110

    Explanation

    5³ − 3 × 5 = 110.

  75. Q75Open question

    0.2 + 0.02 + 0.002 = ?

    1. 0.220
    2. 0.222
    3. 0.224
    4. 0.226
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 0.222

    Explanation

    = 0.222.

  76. Q76Open question

    Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. This is why it is widely used for tasks such as spam detection, speech recognition, and disease prediction. 2. Data science involves extracting useful insights from data using statistical methods and computational tools. 3. By examining large datasets, it uncovers hidden trends and supports better decision-making. 4. Rather than relying on guesses, analysts work with evidence drawn from real-world data.

    1. 2, 4, 3, 1
    2. 4, 3, 2, 1
    3. 3, 4, 2, 1
    4. 2, 3, 4, 1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2, 4, 3, 1

    Explanation

    Definition (2), evidence-based (4), finds trends (3), applications (1).

  77. Q77Open question

    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: It is high time you must follow a proper routine.

    1. followed a proper routine
    2. must have followed a proper routine
    3. follow a proper routine
    4. will follow a proper routine
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) followed a proper routine

    Explanation

    'It is high time' takes the past subjunctive: 'you followed'.

  78. Q78Open question

    Identify the misspelt word

    1. Accommodation
    2. Occurence
    3. Maintenance
    4. Renaissance
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Occurence

    Explanation

    The correct spelling is 'Occurrence'.

  79. Q79Open question

    Select the most appropriate antonym of the given word: OBLITERATE

    1. Erase
    2. Foster
    3. Annihilate
    4. Extinguish
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Foster

    Explanation

    Obliterate (destroy) is the opposite of foster (nurture).

  80. Q80Open question

    Choose the most suitable option to replace the highlighted part of the sentence: Had I been aware of the delay, I will start earlier.

    1. would have started earlier
    2. would start earlier
    3. had started earlier
    4. would started earlier
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) would have started earlier

    Explanation

    Third conditional: 'Had I..., I would have started'.

  81. Q81Open question

    Convert to indirect speech: She said, “Finish it right now.”

    1. She said to finish it instantly.
    2. She told to finish it then.
    3. She told me to finish it immediately.
    4. She told me finish it right now.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) She told me to finish it immediately.

    Explanation

    Command becomes 'told me to...'; 'right now' becomes 'immediately'.

  82. Q82Open question

    Select the correct option: The committee issued several directives, none of _______ were implemented.

    1. that
    2. them
    3. which
    4. whom
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) which

    Explanation

    A non-defining relative clause after a comma uses 'which'.

  83. Q83Open question

    Convert to direct speech: The manager remarked that employees needed to submit their reports by Monday.

    1. “Employees need to submit their reports by Monday,” the manager remarked.
    2. “Employees needed to submit their reports by Monday,” the manager said.
    3. “Submit your reports by Monday,” the manager ordered.
    4. “You were to submit your reports by Monday,” the manager said.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) “Employees need to submit their reports by Monday,” the manager remarked.

    Explanation

    'Needed' goes back to present 'need'.

  84. Q84Open question

    Select the correct option: Her interpretation was diametrically ________ to the accepted doctrine.

    1. adverse
    2. averse
    3. inverse
    4. opposed
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) opposed

    Explanation

    The collocation is 'diametrically opposed to'.

  85. Q85Open question

    Rearrange the following sentences to form a coherent paragraph: 1. The key aim of this process is to make items safer to consume by reducing germs and impurities. 2. Food preservation refers to techniques used to keep perishable items from spoiling quickly. 3. These techniques may include drying, freezing, canning, and methods like salting or pickling. 4. Moreover, it helps retain quality, improves storage duration, and reduces overall food waste.

    1. 2, 3, 1, 4
    2. 1, 2, 3, 4
    3. 1, 4, 3, 2
    4. 4, 2, 1, 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2, 3, 1, 4

    Explanation

    Definition (2), techniques (3), aim (1), further benefits (4).

  86. Q86Open question

    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: It was not only the scattering of administrative authority across multiple agencies (1)/ that weakened coordinated policy-making, but the rigidity built into intersecting compliance frameworks (2)/ which, though intended to preserve procedural independence, (3)/ end up stalling inter-departmental coordination completely. (4)

    1. (1)
    2. (2)
    3. (3)
    4. (4)
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) (4)

    Explanation

    'Which' refers to 'the rigidity' (singular), so it should be 'ends up'.

  87. Q87Open question

    Change the following from active to passive: The panel had been reviewing sensitive proposals when the alarm sounded.

    1. Sensitive proposals had had been reviewed by the panel when the alarm sounded.
    2. Sensitive proposals had been being reviewed by the panel when the alarm sounded.
    3. Sensitive proposals had be being reviewed by the panel when the alarm sounded.
    4. Sensitive proposals had reviewed by the panel when the alarm sounded.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Sensitive proposals had been being reviewed by the panel when the alarm sounded.

    Explanation

    Past perfect continuous passive: had been being + V3.

  88. Q88Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: India’s association with the Olympics dates back to 1900, when Norman Pritchard, a British-Indian sportsperson, secured two silver medals in athletics. Yet, India’s first true team breakthrough arrived much later—at the 1928 Amsterdam Games—when the men’s hockey squad captured its maiden Olympic gold and announced India’s dominance on the world stage. Thereafter came a celebrated phase in which Indian men’s hockey ruled the Olympics, collecting eight gold medals from 1928 to 1980—an extraordinary record. However, this brilliance did not translate into consistent overall success. After 1980, India experienced a striking medal lull, revealing deeper structural shortcomings such as weak infrastructure, insufficient training systems, and limited grassroots talent identification. Many athletes had to depend heavily on personal grit rather than organized support to reach global standards. In recent decades, though, the story has shifted towards guarded hope. With initiatives like the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) and stronger corporate backing, athletes increasingly receive better coaching, nutrition planning, and mental-conditioning support. Medal counts remain moderate but have improved—highlighted by Neeraj Chopra’s landmark javelin gold at Tokyo 2020. Another encouraging development is the widening of India’s sporting footprint: progress is now visible across badminton, shooting, boxing, athletics, and more—not just hockey and wrestling. Notably, Indian women athletes have also emerged as key contributors in recent Olympic performances. Even so, converting promise into podium finishes still demands sustained funding, scientific sports planning, and a culture that values multiple sports beyond cricket. India’s Olympic identity is still taking shape, but the ambition is unmistakable: to evolve from participation to true powerhouse status. According to the passage, India’s first Olympic team gold was achieved at which Games?

    1. 1900 Games held in France
    2. 1936 Games hosted in Germany
    3. 1928 Games conducted in the Netherlands
    4. 1948 Games hosted in the UK
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1928 Games conducted in the Netherlands

    Explanation

    Hockey gold at the 1928 Amsterdam Games.

  89. Q89Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: India’s association with the Olympics dates back to 1900, when Norman Pritchard, a British-Indian sportsperson, secured two silver medals in athletics. Yet, India’s first true team breakthrough arrived much later—at the 1928 Amsterdam Games—when the men’s hockey squad captured its maiden Olympic gold and announced India’s dominance on the world stage. Thereafter came a celebrated phase in which Indian men’s hockey ruled the Olympics, collecting eight gold medals from 1928 to 1980—an extraordinary record. However, this brilliance did not translate into consistent overall success. After 1980, India experienced a striking medal lull, revealing deeper structural shortcomings such as weak infrastructure, insufficient training systems, and limited grassroots talent identification. Many athletes had to depend heavily on personal grit rather than organized support to reach global standards. In recent decades, though, the story has shifted towards guarded hope. With initiatives like the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) and stronger corporate backing, athletes increasingly receive better coaching, nutrition planning, and mental-conditioning support. Medal counts remain moderate but have improved—highlighted by Neeraj Chopra’s landmark javelin gold at Tokyo 2020. Another encouraging development is the widening of India’s sporting footprint: progress is now visible across badminton, shooting, boxing, athletics, and more—not just hockey and wrestling. Notably, Indian women athletes have also emerged as key contributors in recent Olympic performances. Even so, converting promise into podium finishes still demands sustained funding, scientific sports planning, and a culture that values multiple sports beyond cricket. India’s Olympic identity is still taking shape, but the ambition is unmistakable: to evolve from participation to true powerhouse status. What does the passage identify as the key reason behind India’s poor Olympic outcomes after 1980?

    1. Weak public enthusiasm for sports
    2. Excessive dependence on cricket culture
    3. Deep-rooted flaws in the sports system
    4. Absence of international exposure events
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Deep-rooted flaws in the sports system

    Explanation

    It cites structural shortcomings in infrastructure, training and talent identification.

  90. Q90Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: India’s association with the Olympics dates back to 1900, when Norman Pritchard, a British-Indian sportsperson, secured two silver medals in athletics. Yet, India’s first true team breakthrough arrived much later—at the 1928 Amsterdam Games—when the men’s hockey squad captured its maiden Olympic gold and announced India’s dominance on the world stage. Thereafter came a celebrated phase in which Indian men’s hockey ruled the Olympics, collecting eight gold medals from 1928 to 1980—an extraordinary record. However, this brilliance did not translate into consistent overall success. After 1980, India experienced a striking medal lull, revealing deeper structural shortcomings such as weak infrastructure, insufficient training systems, and limited grassroots talent identification. Many athletes had to depend heavily on personal grit rather than organized support to reach global standards. In recent decades, though, the story has shifted towards guarded hope. With initiatives like the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) and stronger corporate backing, athletes increasingly receive better coaching, nutrition planning, and mental-conditioning support. Medal counts remain moderate but have improved—highlighted by Neeraj Chopra’s landmark javelin gold at Tokyo 2020. Another encouraging development is the widening of India’s sporting footprint: progress is now visible across badminton, shooting, boxing, athletics, and more—not just hockey and wrestling. Notably, Indian women athletes have also emerged as key contributors in recent Olympic performances. Even so, converting promise into podium finishes still demands sustained funding, scientific sports planning, and a culture that values multiple sports beyond cricket. India’s Olympic identity is still taking shape, but the ambition is unmistakable: to evolve from participation to true powerhouse status. Which programme is cited in the passage as a major boost to India’s modern Olympic preparation?

    1. Khel Pragati Abhiyan
    2. Olympic Excellence Drive
    3. Fit Nation Campaign
    4. Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS)
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS)

    Explanation

    The passage names TOPS.

  91. Q91Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: India’s association with the Olympics dates back to 1900, when Norman Pritchard, a British-Indian sportsperson, secured two silver medals in athletics. Yet, India’s first true team breakthrough arrived much later—at the 1928 Amsterdam Games—when the men’s hockey squad captured its maiden Olympic gold and announced India’s dominance on the world stage. Thereafter came a celebrated phase in which Indian men’s hockey ruled the Olympics, collecting eight gold medals from 1928 to 1980—an extraordinary record. However, this brilliance did not translate into consistent overall success. After 1980, India experienced a striking medal lull, revealing deeper structural shortcomings such as weak infrastructure, insufficient training systems, and limited grassroots talent identification. Many athletes had to depend heavily on personal grit rather than organized support to reach global standards. In recent decades, though, the story has shifted towards guarded hope. With initiatives like the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) and stronger corporate backing, athletes increasingly receive better coaching, nutrition planning, and mental-conditioning support. Medal counts remain moderate but have improved—highlighted by Neeraj Chopra’s landmark javelin gold at Tokyo 2020. Another encouraging development is the widening of India’s sporting footprint: progress is now visible across badminton, shooting, boxing, athletics, and more—not just hockey and wrestling. Notably, Indian women athletes have also emerged as key contributors in recent Olympic performances. Even so, converting promise into podium finishes still demands sustained funding, scientific sports planning, and a culture that values multiple sports beyond cricket. India’s Olympic identity is still taking shape, but the ambition is unmistakable: to evolve from participation to true powerhouse status. Which development is presented as the most positive shift in India’s Olympic journey in recent times?

    1. Cutting down cricket-related focus
    2. Returning to complete hockey supremacy
    3. Growth across many sports along with stronger women’s performances
    4. A decline in dominance of Western nations
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Growth across many sports along with stronger women’s performances

    Explanation

    A wider sporting footprint and women's contributions.

  92. Q92Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the question based on it. Passage: India’s association with the Olympics dates back to 1900, when Norman Pritchard, a British-Indian sportsperson, secured two silver medals in athletics. Yet, India’s first true team breakthrough arrived much later—at the 1928 Amsterdam Games—when the men’s hockey squad captured its maiden Olympic gold and announced India’s dominance on the world stage. Thereafter came a celebrated phase in which Indian men’s hockey ruled the Olympics, collecting eight gold medals from 1928 to 1980—an extraordinary record. However, this brilliance did not translate into consistent overall success. After 1980, India experienced a striking medal lull, revealing deeper structural shortcomings such as weak infrastructure, insufficient training systems, and limited grassroots talent identification. Many athletes had to depend heavily on personal grit rather than organized support to reach global standards. In recent decades, though, the story has shifted towards guarded hope. With initiatives like the Target Olympic Podium Scheme (TOPS) and stronger corporate backing, athletes increasingly receive better coaching, nutrition planning, and mental-conditioning support. Medal counts remain moderate but have improved—highlighted by Neeraj Chopra’s landmark javelin gold at Tokyo 2020. Another encouraging development is the widening of India’s sporting footprint: progress is now visible across badminton, shooting, boxing, athletics, and more—not just hockey and wrestling. Notably, Indian women athletes have also emerged as key contributors in recent Olympic performances. Even so, converting promise into podium finishes still demands sustained funding, scientific sports planning, and a culture that values multiple sports beyond cricket. India’s Olympic identity is still taking shape, but the ambition is unmistakable: to evolve from participation to true powerhouse status. What does the passage suggest about India’s Olympic goals going forward?

    1. They depend completely on overseas training support
    2. They are restricted to regular participation only
    3. They are rising, but require continuous long-term reforms
    4. They remain focused mainly on traditional medal sports
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) They are rising, but require continuous long-term reforms

    Explanation

    Ambition is clear, but it needs sustained funding and planning.

  93. Q93Open question

    Select the correct option: No sooner _________ the report released than the media erupted with criticism.

    1. was
    2. had
    3. were
    4. have
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) was

    Explanation

    Passive inversion: 'No sooner was the report released than...'.

  94. Q94Open question

    Find the part of the sentence that contains an error: The guideline seeks to neither prosecute minor violations (1)/ nor to overlook repeated breaches (2)/ arising from procedural confusion (3)/ rather than deliberate misconduct. (4)

    1. (1)
    2. (2)
    3. (3)
    4. (4)
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) (1)

    Explanation

    Correlative placement: 'seeks neither to prosecute ... nor to overlook'.

  95. Q95Open question

    Select the most appropriate synonym of the given word: INFANTILE

    1. Sophisticated
    2. Seasoned
    3. Puerile
    4. Mature
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Puerile

    Explanation

    Infantile and puerile both mean childish.

  96. Q96Open question

    Convert the sentence provided below from its passive voice structure to an active voice structure: A report is submitted to the supervisor by the intern every Monday.

    1. The supervisor submits a report to the intern every Monday.
    2. The intern submits a report to the supervisor every Monday.
    3. The supervisor submitted a report every Monday.
    4. The intern has been submitting reports to the supervisor every Monday.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) The intern submits a report to the supervisor every Monday.

    Explanation

    Simple present passive becomes simple present active.

  97. Q97Open question

    Spot the correct spelling of an early film material.

    1. Celluloid
    2. Celluloidn
    3. Celluliod
    4. Celuloid
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Celluloid

    Explanation

    The correct spelling is Celluloid.

  98. Q98Open question

    Choose the correct meaning of idiom: Mend fences

    1. To restore friendly relations after a dispute
    2. To intensify rivalry
    3. To escape from responsibility
    4. To forget an important detail
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) To restore friendly relations after a dispute

    Explanation

    'Mend fences' means to repair a relationship.

  99. Q99Open question

    Choose the correct one-word substitute for: “A person who is excessively fond of eating and drinking.”

    1. Ascetic
    2. Gourmand
    3. Stoic
    4. Miser
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Gourmand

    Explanation

    A gourmand loves eating and drinking to excess.

  100. Q100Open question

    Select the sentence containing the homonym of the highlighted word: The knight adjusted his pauldron before the joust.

    1. The armourer repaired the dented pauldron and refastened its straps.
    2. In the gallery, the curator tagged the pauldron as part of a full suit of armour.
    3. Professor Pauldron delivered a lecture on medieval warfare to the history students.
    4. The antique dealer priced the bronze pauldron higher than the matching gauntlets.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Professor Pauldron delivered a lecture on medieval warfare to the history students.

    Explanation

    In (c) 'Pauldron' is a surname; the others mean shoulder armour.

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