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UPSC · Previous year paper

Civil Services Examination Prelims 2022: questions with answers

UPSC Prelims 2022 (GS) · 100 questions. Try each question, then open its answer.

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  1. Q1Open question

    "Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?

    1. Asian Development Bank
    2. International Monetary Fund
    3. United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
    4. World Bank
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) International Monetary Fund

    Explanation

    RFI and RCF are IMF emergency lending facilities for members facing urgent balance-of-payments needs.

  2. Q2Open question

    With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of rupee. 2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness. 3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER. Which of the above statements are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

    Explanation

    A rising NEER means rupee appreciation. A rising REER means loss of trade competitiveness, not improvement. REER adjusts NEER for relative inflation, so higher domestic inflation widens the gap between them.

  3. Q3Open question

    With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities. 2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market. 3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

    Explanation

    To fight inflation the RBI sells (not buys) G-secs to absorb liquidity. It sells dollars to support a falling rupee, and it buys dollars when lower foreign rates bring capital inflows that push the rupee up.

  4. Q4Open question

    With reference to the "G20 Common Framework", consider the following statements: 1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club. 2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    The Common Framework for Debt Treatments (2020) was agreed by the G20 and Paris Club to help low-income countries restructure unsustainable debt.

  5. Q5Open question

    With reference to the Indian economy, what are the advantages of "Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)"? 1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs. 2. IIBs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation. 3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

    Explanation

    IIBs carry lower real coupons because principal/interest is indexed to inflation, protecting investors. Interest and capital gains on IIBs are taxable.

  6. Q6Open question

    With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places. 2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Explanation

    FDI rules allow foreign e-commerce firms only the marketplace model (no inventory model), and restrict their equity/control over sellers on their platforms.

  7. Q7Open question

    Which of the following activities constitute real sector in the economy? 1. Farmers harvesting their crops 2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics 3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company 4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

    Explanation

    The real sector produces goods and services (agriculture, manufacturing). Bank lending and bond issuance are financial-sector activities.

  8. Q8Open question

    Which one of the following situations best reflects "Indirect Transfers" often talked about in media recently with reference to India?

    1. An Indian company investing in a foreign enterprise and paying taxes to the foreign country on the profits arising out of its investment
    2. A foreign company investing in India and paying taxes to the country of its base on the profits arising out of its investment
    3. An Indian company purchases tangible assets in a foreign country and sells such assets after their value increases and transfers the proceeds to India
    4. A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) A foreign company transfers shares and such shares derive their substantial value from assets located in India

    Explanation

    Indirect transfer refers to transfer of shares of a foreign entity whose value substantially derives from Indian assets (e.g., the Vodafone and Cairn retrospective tax cases).

  9. Q9Open question

    With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure. 2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Explanation

    Acquiring technology creates a long-term asset, so it is capital expenditure. Debt and equity are sources of finance, not categories of expenditure.

  10. Q10Open question

    With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: 1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings. 2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Household savings flow to government borrowing via small savings, banks, insurance etc., and dated G-secs form the bulk of internal debt.

  11. Q11Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 1, 2 and 4
    3. 3 and 4 only
    4. 3 only
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4

    Explanation

    The 1971 Act followed the Sanyal Committee; Articles 129 and 215 empower SC/HCs; Parliament legislates under Entry 77 (List I) and Entry 14 (List III). Civil and criminal contempt are defined in the 1971 Act, not the Constitution.

  12. Q12Open question

    With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Explanation

    Under the Advocates Act, the Bar Council of India regulates legal education and recognises law colleges. Legal firms are not 'advocates', and the recognition distinction in statement 1 is inaccurate.

  13. Q13Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

    Explanation

    No prior Presidential recommendation is needed for an amendment bill. Since the 24th Amendment the President must assent, and there is no joint sitting under Article 368.

  14. Q14Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Explanation

    Ranks of ministers are not in the Constitution; they come from convention. The 91st Amendment (Art. 75(1A)) caps the Council of Ministers at 15% of Lok Sabha strength.

  15. Q15Open question

    Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 3. To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Explanation

    Emergency approval and presidential impeachment involve both Houses. Only the Lok Sabha can pass a no-confidence motion (Art. 75(3)).

  16. Q16Open question

    With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. 2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Explanation

    A nominated member may join a party within six months of taking the seat; after that he is disqualified. The Tenth Schedule prescribes no time limit for the presiding officer.

  17. Q17Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Explanation

    Only the Attorney General (not the Solicitor General) has the right to take part in parliamentary proceedings under Art. 88, and ministers also participate. AG resignation with the government is a convention, not a constitutional requirement.

  18. Q18Open question

    With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1 and 3 only

    Explanation

    Mandamus lies against public authorities, including government companies that are 'State', and against private bodies only if they perform public duties. Quo warranto can be sought by any person, not necessarily aggrieved.

  19. Q19Open question

    With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it. 2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. 3. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 3 only

    Explanation

    ABDM is voluntary for both hospitals and citizens; its health IDs offer nationwide portability of records.

  20. Q20Open question

    With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 3 only
    2. 1, 2 and 3
    3. 3 and 4 only
    4. 2 and 4 only
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 3 only

    Explanation

    Rule 8 lets the Speaker fix the election date, and when presiding the Deputy Speaker has the Speaker's powers with no appeal. There is no mandatory party rule, and the motion is not moved by the Speaker.

  21. Q21Open question

    Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?

    1. Cotton
    2. Rice
    3. Sugarcane
    4. Wheat
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Rice

    Explanation

    Flooded paddy fields emit methane (anaerobic decomposition), and fertiliser use/wet-dry cycles emit nitrous oxide.

  22. Q22Open question

    "System of Rice Intensification" of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: 1. Reduced seed requirement 2. Reduced methane production 3. Reduced electricity consumption Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    SRI uses fewer seeds (single young seedlings), and intermittent irrigation cuts methane and pumping electricity.

  23. Q23Open question

    Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?

    1. Lake Victoria
    2. Lake Faguibine
    3. Lake Oguta
    4. Lake Volta
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Lake Faguibine

    Explanation

    Lake Faguibine in Mali dried up due to droughts and reduced Niger floodwaters.

  24. Q24Open question

    Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?

    1. Cauvery
    2. Manjira
    3. Pennar
    4. Tungabhadra
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Pennar

    Explanation

    Gandikota canyon ('Grand Canyon of India') in Kadapa, AP, is carved by the Pennar river through the Erramala hills.

  25. Q25Open question

    Consider the following pairs: Peak — Mountains 1. Namcha Barwa — Garhwal Himalaya 2. Nanda Devi — Kumaon Himalaya 3. Nokrek — Sikkim Himalaya Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Explanation

    Namcha Barwa is in the eastern (Assam/Tibet) Himalaya and Nokrek is in the Garo Hills, Meghalaya. Nanda Devi lies in the Kumaon Himalaya.

  26. Q26Open question

    The term "Levant" often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?

    1. Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores
    2. Region along North African shores stretching from Egypt to Morocco
    3. Region along Persian Gulf and Horn of Africa
    4. The entire coastal areas of Mediterranean Sea
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Region along the eastern Mediterranean shores

    Explanation

    The Levant covers the eastern Mediterranean: Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Palestine, Jordan (and Cyprus/parts of Turkey).

  27. Q27Open question

    Consider the following countries: 1. Azerbaijan 2. Kyrgyzstan 3. Tajikistan 4. Turkmenistan 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?

    1. 1, 2 and 5 only
    2. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
    3. 3, 4 and 5 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 3, 4 and 5 only

    Explanation

    Afghanistan borders Tajikistan, Turkmenistan and Uzbekistan (plus Iran, Pakistan, China), not Azerbaijan or Kyrgyzstan.

  28. Q28Open question

    With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Monazite is a source of rare earths. 2. Monazite contains thorium. 3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India. 4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. 1, 2 and 4 only
    3. 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4 only

    Explanation

    Monazite is a rare-earth and thorium mineral. It occurs in specific beach sands (Kerala, TN, Odisha, AP), not all coasts, and only government entities like IREL can process/export it.

  29. Q29Open question

    In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:

    1. First half of the month of June
    2. Second half of the month of June
    3. First half of the month of July
    4. Second half of the month of July
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Second half of the month of June

    Explanation

    The summer solstice (longest day) in the northern hemisphere falls around 20–21 June.

  30. Q30Open question

    Consider the following pairs: Wetland/Lake — Location 1. Hokera Wetland — Punjab 2. Renuka Wetland — Himachal Pradesh 3. Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura 4. Sasthamkotta Lake — Tamil Nadu How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one pair
    2. Only two pairs
    3. Only three pairs
    4. All four pairs
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two pairs

    Explanation

    Renuka (HP) and Rudrasagar (Tripura) are correct. Hokera is in Jammu & Kashmir and Sasthamkotta in Kerala.

  31. Q31Open question

    Consider the following: 1. Aarogya Setu 2. CoWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2, 3 and 4 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Explanation

    All four are part of India's digital public infrastructure built on open-source platforms/stacks (e.g., CoWIN on DIVOC, DIKSHA on Sunbird; Aarogya Setu's code was open-sourced).

  32. Q32Open question

    With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements: 1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. 2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain based social networks. 3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    Web 3.0 is a decentralised, blockchain-based web where users own their data and platforms are collectively governed.

  33. Q33Open question

    With reference to "Software as a Service (SaaS)", consider the following statements: 1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields. 2. SaaS users can access their data through their mobile devices. 3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    SaaS apps are cloud-hosted, accessible from any device, allow configuration of UI/fields, and web email services are classic SaaS examples.

  34. Q34Open question

    Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the "Fractional Orbital Bombardment System" often talked about in media?

    1. A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
    2. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
    3. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
    4. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.

    Explanation

    FOBS places a warhead in low orbit and deorbits it onto a target, evading early-warning systems; it was in the news after China's 2021 hypersonic test.

  35. Q35Open question

    Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned?

    1. Cloud Services
    2. Quantum Computing
    3. Visible Light Communication Technologies
    4. Wireless Communication Technologies
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Quantum Computing

    Explanation

    A qubit (quantum bit) is the basic unit of information in quantum computing and can exist in superposition.

  36. Q36Open question

    Consider the following communication technologies: 1. Closed-circuit Television 2. Radio Frequency Identification 3. Wireless Local Area Network Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

    Explanation

    RFID and WLAN are recognised short-range radio devices. CCTV is a video surveillance system, not an SRD category.

  37. Q37Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues. 2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces. 3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    Biofilms (microbial communities in a matrix) form on implants and food surfaces and are notably resistant to antibiotics.

  38. Q38Open question

    Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: 1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast. 2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut. 3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1 and 3

    Explanation

    Probiotics include bacteria (Lactobacillus) and yeasts (Saccharomyces), and they aid lactose digestion. Many of these organisms do occur naturally in the gut.

  39. Q39Open question

    In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: 1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform. 2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform. 3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

    Explanation

    Covishield is a viral-vector (chimpanzee adenovirus) vaccine, not mRNA. Sputnik V uses adenoviral vectors, and Covaxin is an inactivated whole-virion vaccine.

  40. Q40Open question

    If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? 1. GPS and navigation systems could fail. 2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions. 3. Power grids could be damaged. 4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth. 5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet. 6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed. 7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
    2. 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
    3. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only

    Explanation

    Geomagnetic storms disrupt GPS, grids, satellites (atmospheric drag) and HF radio, and cause widespread auroras. They do not cause tsunamis or forest fires.

  41. Q41Open question

    "Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:

    1. Database created by coalition of research organisations
    2. Wing of "International Panel of Climate Change"
    3. Committee under "United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change"
    4. Agency promoted and financed by United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Database created by coalition of research organisations

    Explanation

    CAT is an independent analysis by research organisations (Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute).

  42. Q42Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. "The Climate Group" is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them. 2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative "EP100". 3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. 4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100. 5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the "Under2 Coalition". Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1, 2, 4 and 5
    2. 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. 2, 3 and 5 only
    4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1, 3 and 4 only

    Explanation

    EP100 was launched by the Climate Group with the Alliance to Save Energy (not the IEA), and has Indian members such as Mahindra. The Climate Group, not the IEA, is the Under2 Coalition secretariat.

  43. Q43Open question

    "If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys." Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement?

    1. The water cycle in wetlands involves surface runoff, subsoil percolation and evaporation.
    2. Algae form the nutrient base upon which fish, crustaceans, molluscs, birds, reptiles and mammals thrive.
    3. Wetlands play a vital role in maintaining sedimentation balance and soil stabilization.
    4. Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

    Explanation

    Like kidneys, wetlands filter pollutants; aquatic plants absorb heavy metals and excess nutrients.

  44. Q44Open question

    In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m³. 2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather. 3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1, 3 and 4
    2. 1 and 4 only
    3. 2, 3 and 4
    4. 1 and 2 only
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1 and 4 only

    Explanation

    The 2021 WHO limits for PM2.5 are 15 (24-h) and 5 (annual) µg/m³, and ozone triggers asthma. Ozone peaks in sunny, not inclement, weather, and it is PM2.5 (not PM10) that enters the bloodstream.

  45. Q45Open question

    With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: 1. It is a fungus. 2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. 3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1 and 2
    4. 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Gucchi (morel mushroom) is a wild fungus from Himalayan forests (J&K, HP) and is not commercially cultivated.

  46. Q46Open question

    With reference to polyethylene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements: 1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties. 2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage. 3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products. 4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 3
    2. 2 and 4
    3. 1 and 4
    4. 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 3

    Explanation

    PET (polyester) fibres are blended with cotton/wool, and PET bottles are recyclable. It is not suitable for all alcoholic beverages, and incineration emits CO2.

  47. Q47Open question

    Which of the following is not a bird?

    1. Golden Mahseer
    2. Indian Nightjar
    3. Spoonbill
    4. White Ibis
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Golden Mahseer

    Explanation

    Golden Mahseer is a freshwater fish; the others are birds.

  48. Q48Open question

    Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? 1. Alfalfa 2. Amaranth 3. Chickpea 4. Clover 5. Purslane (Kulfa) 6. Spinach Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1, 3 and 4 only
    2. 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
    3. 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
    4. 1, 2, 4, 5 and 6
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1, 3 and 4 only

    Explanation

    Alfalfa, chickpea and clover are legumes with nitrogen-fixing root nodules.

  49. Q49Open question

    "Biorock technology" is talked about in which one of the following situations?

    1. Restoration of damaged coral reefs
    2. Development of building materials using plant residues
    3. Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
    4. Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Restoration of damaged coral reefs

    Explanation

    Biorock uses low-voltage current on steel frames to deposit limestone, helping corals regrow (used in the Gulf of Kutch).

  50. Q50Open question

    The "Miyawaki method" is well known for the:

    1. Promotion of commercial farming in arid and semi-arid areas
    2. Development of gardens using genetically modified flora
    3. Creation of mini forests in urban areas
    4. Harvesting wind energy on coastal areas and on sea surfaces
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Creation of mini forests in urban areas

    Explanation

    The Japanese Miyawaki method densely plants native species to create fast-growing mini forests in urban spaces.

  51. Q51Open question

    In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into "Reserved" and "Transferred" subjects. Which of the following were treated as "Reserved" subjects? 1. Administration of Justice 2. Local Self-Government 3. Land Revenue 4. Police Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 2, 3 and 4
    3. 1, 3 and 4
    4. 1, 2 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4

    Explanation

    Justice, land revenue and police were reserved subjects under the Governor. Local self-government was a transferred subject under Indian ministers.

  52. Q52Open question

    In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred to:

    1. Clothing
    2. Coins
    3. Ornaments
    4. Weapons
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Coins

    Explanation

    Fanam was a small gold/silver coin used in South India.

  53. Q53Open question

    Consider the following freedom fighters: 1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh 2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee 3. Rash Behari Bose Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 3 only

    Explanation

    Rash Behari Bose coordinated the Ghadar uprising plan of 1915. Barindra Ghosh was with Anushilan/Jugantar and Jogesh Chatterjee with HRA.

  54. Q54Open question

    With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements: 1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States. 2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Explanation

    Under Cripps, provincial members were to be elected by provincial assemblies (princely states would nominate), and provinces could opt out and sign separate agreements.

  55. Q55Open question

    With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts: 1. Nettipakarana 2. Parishishtaparvan 3. Avadanashataka 4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana Which of the above are Jaina texts?

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4
    4. 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 and 4 only

    Explanation

    Parishishtaparvan (Hemachandra) and Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana (Jinasena/Gunabhadra) are Jaina. Nettipakarana and Avadanashataka are Buddhist.

  56. Q56Open question

    With reference to Indian history, consider the following pairs: Historical person — Known as 1. Aryadeva — Jaina scholar 2. Dignaga — Buddhist scholar 3. Nathamuni — Vaishnava scholar How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. None of the pairs
    2. Only one pair
    3. Only two pairs
    4. All three pairs
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only two pairs

    Explanation

    Aryadeva was a Buddhist (Madhyamaka) scholar, a disciple of Nagarjuna. Dignaga was a Buddhist logician and Nathamuni a Sri Vaishnava acharya.

  57. Q57Open question

    With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: 1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji. 2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city. 3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Explanation

    The first Mongol incursion came under Iltutmish (Chengiz Khan, 1221). Under Alauddin, Targhi besieged Delhi (1303), and Muhammad bin Tughlaq bought off Tarmashirin without losing territory (per the official key).

  58. Q58Open question

    With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as "Kulah-Daran"?

    1. Arab merchants
    2. Qalandars
    3. Persian calligraphists
    4. Sayyids
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Sayyids

    Explanation

    Sayyids (claimed descendants of the Prophet) were called Kulah-Daran ('cap wearers') in the Delhi Sultanate.

  59. Q59Open question

    With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: 1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers. 2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate. 3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

    Explanation

    Albuquerque took Goa from Bijapur in 1510, and Madras land was granted by Damarla Venkatadri Nayaka, a Vijayanagara representative (1639). Dutch east coast factories (Masulipatnam, Pulicat) were granted by Golconda/Vijayanagara rulers, not the Gajapatis.

  60. Q60Open question

    According to Kautilya's Arthashastra, which of the following are correct? 1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment. 2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free. 3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master's son. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    The Arthashastra recognises slavery through judicial punishment (dandadasa), and frees a female slave and her son when the master fathers him, giving the son the master's son's status.

  61. Q61Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight. 2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs). 3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

    Explanation

    Fed tightening pulls capital out of emerging markets, weakening their currencies and raising the cost of servicing foreign-currency ECBs. Devaluation increases, not decreases, ECB currency risk.

  62. Q62Open question

    Consider the following States: 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Kerala 3. Himachal Pradesh 4. Tripura How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?

    1. Only one State
    2. Only two States
    3. Only three States
    4. All four States
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only three States

    Explanation

    Kerala, Himachal Pradesh (Kangra) and Tripura are recognised tea-producing states; Andhra Pradesh is not generally known for tea.

  63. Q63Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India. 2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company. 3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

    Explanation

    Credit rating agencies are regulated by SEBI. ICRA is a public limited company, and Brickwork is an Indian CRA.

  64. Q64Open question

    With reference to the 'Banks Board Bureau (BBB)', which of the following statements are correct? 1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB. 2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks. 3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 and 3 only

    Explanation

    BBB is chaired by an eminent person appointed by the government, not the RBI Governor. It recommends PSB heads and advises on strategy/capital raising (now replaced by FSIB).

  65. Q65Open question

    With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements: 1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest. 2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    The conversion option lets issuers pay lower coupons. Since equity prices tend to rise with inflation, conversion gives some protection against rising prices.

  66. Q66Open question

    Consider the following: 1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank 2. Missile Technology Control Regime 3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation India is a member of which of the above?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 2 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    India is a founding member of AIIB, joined MTCR in 2016 and SCO in 2017.

  67. Q67Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years. 2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system. 3. Vietnam's economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports. 4. For a long time Vietnam's low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers. 5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 2 and 4
    2. 3 and 5
    3. 1, 3 and 4
    4. 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1, 3 and 4

    Explanation

    Vietnam is a fast-growing, export-led economy attracting manufacturers with low costs and a stable currency. It is a one-party communist state, and the e-services claim is unfounded.

  68. Q68Open question

    In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation?

    1. Department of Consumer Affairs
    2. Expenditure Management Commission
    3. Financial Stability and Development Council
    4. Reserve Bank of India
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Reserve Bank of India

    Explanation

    Under the amended RBI Act (flexible inflation targeting), the RBI's MPC is mandated to maintain price stability.

  69. Q69Open question

    With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: 1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets. 2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain. 3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

    Explanation

    NFTs are unique blockchain tokens representing digital or physical assets. Being non-fungible, they cannot be exchanged at equivalency like currency.

  70. Q70Open question

    Consider the following pairs: Reservoirs — States 1. Ghataprabha — Telangana 2. Gandhi Sagar — Madhya Pradesh 3. Indira Sagar — Andhra Pradesh 4. Maithon — Chhattisgarh How many pairs given above are not correctly matched?

    1. Only one pair
    2. Only two pairs
    3. Only three pairs
    4. All four pairs
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only three pairs

    Explanation

    Only Gandhi Sagar (MP) is correct. Ghataprabha is in Karnataka, Indira Sagar in MP and Maithon in Jharkhand, so three pairs are wrong.

  71. Q71Open question

    In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

    1. Central Statistics Office
    2. Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade
    3. Labour Bureau
    4. National Technical Manpower Information System
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Labour Bureau

    Explanation

    The Labour Bureau (Ministry of Labour) compiles statistics on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs.

  72. Q72Open question

    In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller's Organization (CCO)? 1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India. 2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks. 3. It hears any objection to the Government's notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas. 4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 3 and 4 only
    3. 1 and 2 only
    4. 1, 2 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    CCO (Kolkata) compiles coal statistics, monitors captive blocks and hears objections under the Coal Bearing Areas Act. It does not enforce delivery timelines.

  73. Q73Open question

    If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?

    1. This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
    2. This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
    3. This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
    4. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.

    Explanation

    The Governor can make regulations for Scheduled Areas to prohibit or restrict transfer of tribal land to non-tribals (Para 5(2)). Autonomous councils belong to the Sixth Schedule.

  74. Q74Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization. 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Explanation

    India Sanitation Coalition was launched at FICCI as a multi-stakeholder platform, not funded by GoI/WHO. NIUA is MoHUA's premier urban think tank.

  75. Q75Open question

    Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

    1. Central Water Commission
    2. Central Ground Water Board
    3. Central Ground Water Authority
    4. National Water Development Agency
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Central Ground Water Authority

    Explanation

    CGWA was constituted under Section 3(3) of the EPA, 1986 to regulate groundwater.

  76. Q76Open question

    With reference to the "United Nations Credentials Committee", consider the following statements: 1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision. 2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year. 3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembly for approval. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 3 only
    2. 1 and 3
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 3 only

    Explanation

    The Credentials Committee is a nine-member committee appointed by the General Assembly (not UNSC), usually meeting before the GA session in autumn.

  77. Q77Open question

    Which one of the following statements best describes the 'Polar Code'?

    1. It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.
    2. It is the agreement of the countries around the North Pole regarding the demarcation of their territories in the polar region.
    3. It is a set of norms to be followed by the countries whose scientists undertake research studies in the North Pole and South Pole.
    4. It is a trade and security agreement of the member countries of the Arctic Council.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) It is the international code of safety for ships operating in polar waters.

    Explanation

    The IMO's Polar Code (2017) sets safety and environmental rules for ships in Arctic and Antarctic waters.

  78. Q78Open question

    With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements: 1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States. 2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly. 3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    The UNGA grants observer status to non-member states (e.g., Palestine, Holy See) and IGOs, and permanent observers can keep missions in New York.

  79. Q79Open question

    With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body. 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. 3. The Tea Board's Head Office is situated in Bengaluru. 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 3
    2. 2 and 4
    3. 3 and 4
    4. 1 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1 and 4

    Explanation

    The Tea Board is a statutory body under the Tea Act, 1953, with overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow. It is under the Ministry of Commerce, with its head office in Kolkata.

  80. Q80Open question

    Which one of the following best describes the term "greenwashing"?

    1. Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound
    2. Non-inclusion of ecological/environmental costs in the Annual Financial Statements of a country
    3. Ignoring the disastrous ecological consequences while undertaking infrastructure development
    4. Making mandatory provisions for environmental costs in a government project/programme
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Conveying a false impression that a company's products are eco-friendly and environmentally sound

    Explanation

    Greenwashing is misleading marketing that presents products or firms as more environmentally friendly than they are.

  81. Q81Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. 2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth's surface and thus cause warming effect. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Explanation

    It is the reverse: high thin clouds trap outgoing infrared and warm the surface, while low thick clouds reflect sunlight and cool it.

  82. Q82Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya. 2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi. 3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 2 and 3

    Explanation

    Bidibidi is in north-western Uganda (not Kenya) and hosts South Sudanese refugees. Dadaab in Kenya hosts Somali refugees.

  83. Q83Open question

    Consider the following countries: 1. Armenia 2. Azerbaijan 3. Croatia 4. Romania 5. Uzbekistan Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States?

    1. 1, 2 and 4
    2. 1 and 3
    3. 2 and 5
    4. 3, 4 and 5
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 2 and 5

    Explanation

    OTS members are Turkey, Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Uzbekistan.

  84. Q84Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India. 2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport. 3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Explanation

    Cochin (Kerala) is the world's first fully solar-powered airport. The largest solar park then was Bhadla (Rajasthan), and the largest floating PV was Ramagundam (Telangana).

  85. Q85Open question

    With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements: 1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention. 2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea. 3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea is measured. Which of the statements given above are correct?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    UNCLOS sets the territorial sea at up to 12 nm and the EEZ at up to 200 nm, and grants innocent passage to ships of all states.

  86. Q86Open question

    Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news?

    1. It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
    2. China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
    3. A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
    4. Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man's land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.

    Explanation

    The Senkaku (Diaoyu) Islands in the East China Sea are administered by Japan and claimed by China (and Taiwan).

  87. Q87Open question

    Consider the following pairs: Country — Important reason for being in the news recently 1. Chad — Setting up of permanent military base by China 2. Guinea — Suspension of Constitution and Government by military 3. Lebanon — Severe and prolonged economic depression 4. Tunisia — Suspension of Parliament by President How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one pair
    2. Only two pairs
    3. Only three pairs
    4. All four pairs
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only three pairs

    Explanation

    Guinea saw a 2021 coup, Lebanon a severe economic crisis, and Tunisia's President suspended Parliament in 2021. Chad was in the news for its President's death and military takeover, not a Chinese base.

  88. Q88Open question

    Consider the following pairs: Region often mentioned in the news — Country 1. Anatolia — Turkey 2. Amhara — Ethiopia 3. Cabo Delgado — Spain 4. Catalonia — Italy How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one pair
    2. Only two pairs
    3. Only three pairs
    4. All four pairs
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two pairs

    Explanation

    Anatolia (Turkey) and Amhara (Ethiopia) are correct. Cabo Delgado is in Mozambique and Catalonia in Spain.

  89. Q89Open question

    With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: 1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government. 2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside. 3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 only
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 3 only
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 only

    Explanation

    Scheduled animals get equal protection inside or outside protected areas. Under Section 39 only certain wild animals (killed, captured, etc.) become government property, and killing requires that the animal has actually become dangerous, not mere apprehension.

  90. Q90Open question

    Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?

    1. Ant
    2. Cockroach
    3. Crab
    4. Spider
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Ant

    Explanation

    Leaf-cutter ants cultivate fungus gardens as food (as do some termites).

  91. Q91Open question

    Consider the following pairs: Site of Ashoka's major rock edicts — Location in the State of 1. Dhauli — Odisha 2. Erragudi — Andhra Pradesh 3. Jaugada — Madhya Pradesh 4. Kalsi — Karnataka How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one pair
    2. Only two pairs
    3. Only three pairs
    4. All four pairs
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two pairs

    Explanation

    Dhauli (Odisha) and Erragudi (AP) are correct. Jaugada is in Odisha and Kalsi in Uttarakhand.

  92. Q92Open question

    Consider the following pairs: King — Dynasty 1. Nannuka — Chandela 2. Jayashakti — Paramara 3. Nagabhata II — Gurjara-Pratihara 4. Bhoja — Rashtrakuta How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

    1. Only one pair
    2. Only two pairs
    3. Only three pairs
    4. All four pairs
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two pairs

    Explanation

    Nannuka founded the Chandelas and Nagabhata II was a Pratihara. Jayashakti was a Chandela, and Bhoja was a Pratihara (or Paramara), not a Rashtrakuta.

  93. Q93Open question

    Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?

    1. Sangam poems are devoid of any reference to material culture.
    2. The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.
    3. Sangam poems have no reference to warrior ethic.
    4. Sangam literature refers to magical forces as irrational.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) The social classification of Varna was known to Sangam poets.

    Explanation

    Sangam texts mention varna categories (e.g., brahmanas, arasar). They are rich in material culture and warrior ethic (puram poems) and treat magical forces as real.

  94. Q94Open question

    "Yogavasistha" was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the reign of:

    1. Akbar
    2. Humayun
    3. Shahjahan
    4. Aurangzeb
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Akbar

    Explanation

    Nizamuddin Panipati translated the Yogavasistha into Persian (Jug-Basisht) in 1597 under Akbar.

  95. Q95Open question

    The world's second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?

    1. The best means of salvation was devotion.
    2. Vedas are eternal, self-existent and wholly authoritative.
    3. Logical arguments were essential means for the highest bliss.
    4. Salvation was to be obtained through meditation.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) The best means of salvation was devotion.

    Explanation

    Ramanuja (Vishishtadvaita) taught that intense devotion (bhakti/prapatti) to Vishnu is the best path to salvation.

  96. Q96Open question

    The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? 1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines. 2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni. 3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1 and 3 only
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 only

    Explanation

    Somnath is the first of 12 Jyotirlingas, and Al-Biruni described it. The 1951 Pran Pratishtha was performed by President Rajendra Prasad.

  97. Q97Open question

    Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?

    1. They protect the body from environmental allergens.
    2. They alleviate the body's pain and inflammation.
    3. They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
    4. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

    Explanation

    B and T lymphocytes drive adaptive immunity (antibodies and cell-mediated) against pathogens.

  98. Q98Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature. 2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics. 3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1 and 2
    4. 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 2 and 3

    Explanation

    Nanoparticles occur naturally (volcanic ash, sea spray). ZnO/TiO2 nanoparticles are used in sunscreens and cosmetics, and some are toxic when released.

  99. Q99Open question

    Consider the following statements: DNA Barcoding can be a tool to: 1. assess the age of a plant or animal. 2. distinguish among species that look alike. 3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1 and 2
    4. 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 2 and 3

    Explanation

    DNA barcoding uses short standard gene regions to identify species, detecting lookalikes and food adulteration. It cannot determine age.

  100. Q100Open question

    Consider the following: 1. Carbon monoxide 2. Nitrogen oxide 3. Ozone 4. Sulphur dioxide Excess of which of the above in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 2 and 4 only
    3. 4 only
    4. 1, 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 and 4 only

    Explanation

    SO2 and NOx form sulphuric and nitric acids in the atmosphere, causing acid rain.

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