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UPSC · Previous year paper

Civil Services Examination Prelims 2023: questions with answers

UPSC Prelims 2023 GS · 100 questions. Try each question, then open its answer.

Attempt as timed test
  1. Q1Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Jhelum River passes through Wular Lake. 2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake. 3. Meandering of Gandak River formed Kanwar Lake. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    The Jhelum flows through Wular Lake, and Kanwar Lake (Bihar) is an oxbow of the Gandak. Kolleru lies between the Godavari and Krishna deltas and is fed by streams like Budameru and Tammileru, not directly by the Krishna.

  2. Q2Open question

    Consider the following pairs: Port — Well known as 1. Kamarajar Port — First major port in India registered as a company 2. Mundra Port — Largest privately owned port in India 3. Visakhapatnam Port — Largest container port in India How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one pair
    2. Only two pairs
    3. All three pairs
    4. None of the pairs
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two pairs

    Explanation

    Kamarajar (Ennore) was the first corporatised major port, and Mundra (Adani) is the largest private port. The largest container port is JNPT (Nhava Sheva), not Visakhapatnam.

  3. Q3Open question

    Consider the following trees: 1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus) 2. Mahua (Madhuca indica) 3. Teak (Tectona grandis) How many of the above are deciduous trees?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    Mahua and teak are deciduous; jackfruit is evergreen.

  4. Q4Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. India has more arable area than China. 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in India as compared to China. 3. The average productivity per hectare in Indian agriculture is higher than that in China. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    India has more arable land than China and a higher share of irrigated area, but China's per-hectare productivity is much higher.

  5. Q5Open question

    Which one of the following is the best example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to present-day extensive marshland?

    1. Bhitarkanika Mangroves
    2. Marakkanam Salt Pans
    3. Naupada Swamp
    4. Rann of Kutch
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Rann of Kutch

    Explanation

    The Rann of Kutch was once a shallow arm of the Arabian Sea; repeated falls in sea level and uplift turned it into an extensive salt marsh.

  6. Q6Open question

    Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of which one of the following?

    1. Aluminium
    2. Copper
    3. Iron
    4. Titanium
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Titanium

    Explanation

    Ilmenite (FeTiO3) and rutile (TiO2) in beach sands of Kerala, TN and Odisha are the main titanium ores.

  7. Q7Open question

    About three-fourths of world's cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by

    1. Argentina
    2. Botswana
    3. the Democratic Republic of the Congo
    4. Kazakhstan
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) the Democratic Republic of the Congo

    Explanation

    The DRC produces roughly 70–75% of the world's cobalt.

  8. Q8Open question

    Which one of the following is a part of the Congo Basin?

    1. Cameroon
    2. Nigeria
    3. South Sudan
    4. Uganda
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Cameroon

    Explanation

    The Congo Basin spans Cameroon, CAR, Republic of Congo, DRC, Equatorial Guinea and Gabon.

  9. Q9Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. 2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost part of Satpura Range. 3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the southernmost part of Western Ghats. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None

    Explanation

    Amarkantak is where the Vindhyas meet the Satpuras (Maikal range). Biligirirangan Hills link the Eastern and Western Ghats, and Seshachalam is part of the Eastern Ghats, so none is correct.

  10. Q10Open question

    With reference to India's projects on connectivity, consider the following statements: 1. East-West Corridor under Golden Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and Surat. 2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. 3. Bangladesh-China-India-Myanmar Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh with Kunming in China. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None

    Explanation

    The East-West Corridor (NHDP, not GQ) links Silchar and Porbandar. The Trilateral Highway runs from Moreh to Mae Sot, and BCIM links Kolkata with Kunming.

  11. Q11Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India, despite having uranium deposits, depends on coal for most of its electricity production. Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of at least 60%, is required for the production of electricity. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Coal generates most of India's power. Power reactors use natural or low-enriched uranium (about 3–5%); 60%+ is weapons-grade territory.

  12. Q12Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Marsupials are not naturally found in India. Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in montane grasslands with no predators. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Marsupials are native to Australia and the Americas, not India. They live in varied habitats (forests, deserts, grasslands) and coexist with predators.

  13. Q13Open question

    'Invasive Species Specialist Group' (that develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs to which one of the following organizations?

    1. The International Union for Conservation of Nature
    2. The United Nations Environment Programme
    3. The United Nations World Commission for Environment and Development
    4. The World Wide Fund for Nature
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) The International Union for Conservation of Nature

    Explanation

    The ISSG is part of IUCN's Species Survival Commission and manages the Global Invasive Species Database.

  14. Q14Open question

    Consider the following fauna: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque 2. Malabar Civet 3. Sambar Deer How many of the above are generally nocturnal or most active after sunset?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    The Malabar civet is nocturnal and sambar are mostly nocturnal/crepuscular; the lion-tailed macaque is diurnal.

  15. Q15Open question

    Which of the following organisms perform waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the direction and the distance to a source of their food?

    1. Butterflies
    2. Dragonflies
    3. Honeybees
    4. Wasps
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Honeybees

    Explanation

    Honeybees use the waggle dance to communicate direction and distance of food sources.

  16. Q16Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 2. Some mushrooms have psychoactive properties. 3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. 4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent properties. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) All four

    Explanation

    Mushrooms include medicinal (reishi), psychoactive (psilocybin), insecticidal (e.g., Cordyceps-related/entomopathogenic) and bioluminescent species.

  17. Q17Open question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Indian squirrels: 1. They build nests by making burrows in the ground. 2. They store their food materials like nuts and seeds in the ground. 3. They are omnivorous. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    Indian palm squirrels nest in trees, not burrows. They cache nuts/seeds in the ground and are omnivorous.

  18. Q18Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature above the boiling point of water. 2. Some microorganisms can grow in environments with temperature below the freezing point of water. 3. Some microorganisms can grow in highly acidic environment with a pH below 3. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) All three

    Explanation

    Extremophiles include hyperthermophiles (above 100°C near vents), psychrophiles (below 0°C) and acidophiles (pH below 3).

  19. Q19Open question

    Which one of the following makes a tool with a stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of wood?

    1. Fishing cat
    2. Orangutan
    3. Otter
    4. Sloth bear
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Orangutan

    Explanation

    Orangutans fashion sticks as tools to extract insects and honey from tree holes.

  20. Q20Open question

    Consider the following: 1. Aerosols 2. Foam agents 3. Fire retardants 4. Lubricants In the making of how many of the above are hydrofluorocarbons used?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) All four

    Explanation

    HFCs are used as aerosol propellants, foam-blowing agents, fire suppressants and in lubricants/solvents (besides refrigerants).

  21. Q21Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Interest income from the deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) distributed to their investors is exempted from tax, but the dividend is taxable. Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as borrowers under the 'Securitization and Reconstruction of Financial Assets and Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

    Explanation

    Interest distributed by InvITs is taxable for unitholders, while dividends can be exempt, so Statement-I is wrong. The 2021 Finance Act recognised InvITs as borrowers under SARFAESI.

  22. Q22Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent past, many Central Banks worldwide had carried out interest rate hikes. Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume that they have the ability to counteract the rising consumer prices via monetary policy means. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

    Explanation

    Central banks raised rates in 2022–23 because they believe monetary tightening can curb inflation.

  23. Q23Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be one of the most widespread tools in the fight against climate change. Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer resources from the private sector to the State. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Carbon markets are a key climate tool, but they trade credits mainly between private entities; they do not transfer resources to the State.

  24. Q24Open question

    Which one of the following activities of the Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 'sterilization'?

    1. Conducting 'Open Market Operations'
    2. Oversight of settlement and payment systems
    3. Debt and cash management for the Central and State Governments
    4. Regulating the functions of Non-banking Financial Institutions
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Conducting 'Open Market Operations'

    Explanation

    Sterilisation offsets the liquidity impact of forex interventions, mainly through OMOs.

  25. Q25Open question

    Consider the following markets: 1. Government Bond Market 2. Call Money Market 3. Treasury Bill Market 4. Stock Market How many of the above are included in capital markets?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    Government bonds and stocks are long-term capital market instruments; call money and T-bills belong to the money market.

  26. Q26Open question

    Which one of the following best describes the concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?

    1. Resettlement of a large number of people, uprooted from their countries due to war, by giving them a large cultivable land which they cultivate collectively and share the produce
    2. Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations
    3. Many marginal farmers in an area together make a contract with a corporate body and surrender their land to the corporate body for a fixed term for which the corporate body makes a payment of agreed amount to the farmers
    4. A company extends loans, technical knowledge and material inputs to a number of small farmers in an area so that they produce the agricultural commodity required by the company for its manufacturing process and commercial production
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Many marginal farmers in an area organize themselves into groups and synchronize and harmonize selected agricultural operations

    Explanation

    SFLF groups small farmers to synchronise operations (sowing, harvesting, marketing) to gain economies of scale while retaining ownership.

  27. Q27Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. The Government of India provides Minimum Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica) seeds. 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop. 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil for cooking. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) All three

    Explanation

    Nigerseed is among the MSP crops, is grown mainly in kharif, and its oil is used for cooking by tribal communities.

  28. Q28Open question

    Consider the investments in the following assets: 1. Brand recognition 2. Inventory 3. Intellectual property 4. Mailing list of clients How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only three

    Explanation

    Brand, IP and client lists are intangible; inventory is a tangible asset.

  29. Q29Open question

    Consider the following: 1. Demographic performance 2. Forest and ecology 3. Governance reforms 4. Stable government 5. Tax and fiscal efforts For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth Finance Commission used how many of the above as criteria other than population, area and income distance?

    1. Only two
    2. Only three
    3. Only four
    4. All five
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only three

    Explanation

    XV FC criteria: income distance, population (2011), area, forest and ecology, demographic performance, and tax and fiscal efforts.

  30. Q30Open question

    Consider the following infrastructure sectors: 1. Affordable housing 2. Mass rapid transport 3. Health care 4. Renewable energy On how many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiative focus for its investments?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only three

    Explanation

    UNOPS S3i focuses on affordable housing, renewable energy and health infrastructure.

  31. Q31Open question

    In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?

    1. The principle of natural justice
    2. The procedure established by law
    3. Fair application of law
    4. Equality before law
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Fair application of law

    Explanation

    Due process requires that laws and their application be fair and reasonable, not merely validly enacted (the Maneka Gandhi approach).

  32. Q32Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

    Explanation

    Prisons are a State subject; the Prisons Act, 1894 placed them under provincial control, which is why states frame their own rules.

  33. Q33Open question

    Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?

    1. It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
    2. It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
    3. It defines and limits the powers of government.
    4. It secures social justice, social equality and social security.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) It defines and limits the powers of government.

    Explanation

    A constitution's core purpose is to define and limit governmental power (constitutionalism).

  34. Q34Open question

    In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

    1. 1st Amendment
    2. 42nd Amendment
    3. 44th Amendment
    4. 86th Amendment
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1st Amendment

    Explanation

    The 1st Amendment (1951) added Articles 31A, 31B and the Ninth Schedule, and restrictions to Art. 19, to overcome court rulings (Kameshwar Singh, Romesh Thappar).

  35. Q35Open question

    Consider the following organizations/bodies in India: 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only one

    Explanation

    Only NCBC is constitutional (Art. 338B, 102nd Amendment). NHRC and NCDRC are statutory, and the Law Commission is executive.

  36. Q36Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/her assent. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None

    Explanation

    Art. 71(2) keeps prior acts valid; the election cannot be postponed because some assemblies are dissolved (Art. 71(4)); and no time limit is prescribed for assent.

  37. Q37Open question

    With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only one

    Explanation

    Statement 2 is correct (Art. 109). A Finance Bill containing money bill provisions (Art. 117(1)) cannot be rejected/amended by RS in the same way, and joint sitting is possible but not 'necessary' for Finance Bills.

  38. Q38Open question

    Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve' 1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest 2. hunting is not allowed in such area 3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce 4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only three

    Explanation

    Community Reserves (WPA Sec 36C) are notified by the State and managed by a Community Reserve Management Committee, not the CWLW. Hunting is prohibited while community use such as NTFP collection and traditional practices continues.

  39. Q39Open question

    With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements: 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    Scheduled Areas are declared by Presidential order (Fifth Schedule, Para 6), ranging from district to village clusters. Annual reports are submitted by the Governor to the President, not by CMs to MHA.

  40. Q40Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

    Explanation

    The SC (e.g., Indra Sawhney, M. Nagaraj) tied reservations to administrative efficiency under Art. 335, but Art. 335 does not define 'efficiency of administration'.

  41. Q41Open question

    In which one of the following regions was Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?

    1. Andhra
    2. Gandhara
    3. Kalinga
    4. Magadha
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Andhra

    Explanation

    Dhanyakataka (Dharanikota/Amaravati) was in Andhra on the Krishna river.

  42. Q42Open question

    With reference to ancient India, consider the following statements: 1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. 2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. 3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative structure in Buddhist tradition. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    Stupas (burial mounds) are pre-Buddhist in origin, so statement 1 is wrong. They held relics and served as votive/commemorative structures.

  43. Q43Open question

    With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as

    1. capital cities
    2. ports
    3. centres of iron-and-steel making
    4. shrines of Jain Tirthankaras
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) ports

    Explanation

    Korkai (Pandya), Poompuhar/Kaveripattinam (Chola) and Muchiri/Muziris (Chera) were Sangam-age ports.

  44. Q44Open question

    Which one of the following explains the practice of 'Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems?

    1. Kings employing women bodyguards
    2. Learned persons assembling in royal courts to discuss religious and philosophical matters
    3. Young girls keeping watch over agricultural fields and driving away birds and animals
    4. A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual suicide by starving himself to death

    Explanation

    Vatakkiruttal was ritual fasting unto death, e.g., by a defeated or dishonoured king (Chera Perunchetralathan).

  45. Q45Open question

    Consider the following dynasties: 1. Hoysala 2. Gahadavala 3. Kakatiya 4. Yadava How many of the above dynasties established their kingdoms in early eighth century AD?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None

    Explanation

    All four rose as independent powers in the 11th–12th centuries, not the early 8th century.

  46. Q46Open question

    With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs: Literary work — Author 1. Devichandragupta — Bilhana 2. Hammira-Mahakavya — Nayachandra Suri 3. Milinda-panha — Nagarjuna 4. Nitivakyamrita — Somadeva Suri How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    Hammira-Mahakavya (Nayachandra Suri) and Nitivakyamrita (Somadeva Suri) are correct. Devichandragupta is by Vishakhadatta, and Milinda-panha records the dialogue of Nagasena.

  47. Q47Open question

    "Souls are not only the property of animal and plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many other natural objects not looked on as living by other religious sects." The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of which one of the following religious sects of ancient India?

    1. Buddhism
    2. Jainism
    3. Shaivism
    4. Vaishnavism
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Jainism

    Explanation

    Jainism holds that jiva (soul) exists even in earth, water, fire and air bodies.

  48. Q48Open question

    Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres long from the river to the capital city?

    1. Devaraya I
    2. Mallikarjuna
    3. Vira Vijaya
    4. Virupaksha
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Devaraya I

    Explanation

    Nuniz records that Devaraya I built a dam on the Tungabhadra and an aqueduct to bring water to the city.

  49. Q49Open question

    Who among the following rulers of medieval Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?

    1. Ahmad Shah
    2. Mahmud Begarha
    3. Bahadur Shah
    4. Muhammad Shah
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Bahadur Shah

    Explanation

    Bahadur Shah ceded Diu to the Portuguese (Treaty of Bassein, 1535) for help against Humayun.

  50. Q50Open question

    By which one of the following Acts was the Governor General of Bengal designated as the Governor General of India?

    1. The Regulating Act
    2. The Pitt's India Act
    3. The Charter Act of 1793
    4. The Charter Act of 1833
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) The Charter Act of 1833

    Explanation

    The Charter Act of 1833 made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India (Lord William Bentinck).

  51. Q51Open question

    Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana: 1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    JSY is a centrally sponsored safe-motherhood intervention under NHM that aims to cut maternal and neonatal mortality through institutional deliveries. Sick-infant care is under JSSK, not JSY.

  52. Q52Open question

    Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth. 3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents. 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only three

    Explanation

    AMB provides iron–folic acid (not calcium) supplementation. It promotes delayed cord clamping, periodic deworming and addressing non-nutritional causes.

  53. Q53Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of components used in automobiles and aircrafts. 2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 only

    Explanation

    Carbon fibre is widely used in aerospace and automotive parts and can be recycled (pyrolysis, solvolysis).

  54. Q54Open question

    Consider the following actions: 1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in the deployment of airbags almost instantaneously 2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop towards the ground which results in the immediate turning off of the hard drive 3. Detection of the tilt of the smartphone which results in the rotation of display between portrait and landscape mode In how many of the above actions is the function of accelerometer required?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) All three

    Explanation

    Accelerometers sense sudden deceleration (airbags), free fall (disk protection) and orientation (screen rotation).

  55. Q55Open question

    With reference to the role of biofilters in Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the following statements: 1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by removing uneaten fish feed. 2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish waste to nitrate. 3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as nutrient for fish in water. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    Biofilters remove organic waste and use nitrifying bacteria to convert ammonia to nitrate; they do not add phosphorus.

  56. Q56Open question

    Consider the following pairs: Objects in space — Description 1. Cepheids — Giant clouds of dust and gas in space 2. Nebulae — Stars which brighten and dim periodically 3. Pulsars — Neutron stars that are formed when massive stars run out of fuel and collapse How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only one

    Explanation

    Only pulsars are correctly described. The descriptions of Cepheids (pulsating variable stars) and nebulae (dust/gas clouds) are swapped.

  57. Q57Open question

    Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System?

    1. Australia
    2. Canada
    3. Israel
    4. Japan
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Japan

    Explanation

    Japan operates QZSS (Quasi-Zenith Satellite System).

  58. Q58Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. 2. Agni-V medium-range is a supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Explanation

    The descriptions are reversed: ballistic missiles are rocket-powered in the initial phase, while cruise missiles are jet-propelled throughout. Agni-V is an ICBM and BrahMos a supersonic cruise missile.

  59. Q59Open question

    Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: 1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world. 2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution. 3. There is no known safe level of exposure to mercury. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) All three

    Explanation

    Artisanal gold mining and coal combustion are the largest sources of mercury emissions, and WHO notes no known safe exposure level.

  60. Q60Open question

    With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements: 1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion. 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation. 3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run vehicles. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) All three

    Explanation

    Hydrogen can be burnt in ICEs, blended with natural gas, and used in fuel cells.

  61. Q61Open question

    Consider the following countries: 1. Bulgaria 2. Czech Republic 3. Hungary 4. Latvia 5. Lithuania 6. Romania How many of the above-mentioned countries share a land border with Ukraine?

    1. Only two
    2. Only three
    3. Only four
    4. Only five
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only two

    Explanation

    Of these, only Hungary and Romania border Ukraine (others: Poland, Slovakia, Moldova, Belarus, Russia).

  62. Q62Open question

    With reference to the Earth's atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct?

    1. The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times of that received at the poles.
    2. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
    3. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
    4. Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapour that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.

    Explanation

    Water vapour in the lower atmosphere absorbs much of the infrared radiation. Equator–pole insolation differs about 2.5×, infrared is about half of insolation, and IR is not visible.

  63. Q63Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is rich in nutrients. Statement-II: The high temperature and moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead organic matter in the soil to decompose quickly. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

    Explanation

    Rainforest soils are nutrient-poor because rapid decomposition and heavy leaching quickly remove nutrients (taken up by vegetation).

  64. Q64Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: The temperature contrast between continents and oceans is greater during summer than in winter. Statement-II: The specific heat of water is more than that of land surface. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

    Explanation

    Land heats faster than oceans because water's specific heat is higher, producing a larger land–ocean contrast in summer (the official key treats II as the explanation).

  65. Q65Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves. 2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    P waves are fastest and arrive first. P waves are longitudinal (particles move along the propagation direction), while S waves are transverse (particles move at right angles).

  66. Q66Open question

    With reference to coal-based thermal power plants in India, consider the following statements: 1. None of them uses seawater. 2. None of them is set up in water-stressed district. 3. None of them is privately owned. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None

    Explanation

    Coastal plants such as Mundra use seawater, many plants lie in water-stressed districts, and many are privately owned.

  67. Q67Open question

    'Wolbachia method' is sometimes talked about with reference to which one of the following?

    1. Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes
    2. Converting crop residues into packing material
    3. Producing biodegradable plastics
    4. Producing biochar from thermochemical conversion of biomass
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Controlling the viral diseases spread by mosquitoes

    Explanation

    Mosquitoes infected with Wolbachia bacteria are less able to transmit dengue, Zika and chikungunya.

  68. Q68Open question

    Consider the following activities: 1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on farmlands extensively 2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding lime 3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various industries and pumping it into abandoned subterranean mines in the form of carbonated waters How many of the above activities are often considered and discussed for carbon capture and sequestration?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) All three

    Explanation

    Enhanced rock weathering, ocean alkalinity enhancement and underground injection of CO2 are all discussed CCS approaches.

  69. Q69Open question

    'Aerial metagenomics' best refers to which one of the following situations?

    1. Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go
    2. Understanding the genetic makeup of avian species of a habitat
    3. Using air-borne devices to collect blood samples from moving animals
    4. Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect plant and animal samples from land surfaces and water bodies
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at one go

    Explanation

    Aerial metagenomics sequences environmental DNA collected from air samples to identify organisms in a habitat.

  70. Q70Open question

    'Microsatellite DNA' is used in the case of which one of the following?

    1. Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna
    2. Stimulating 'stem cells' to transform into diverse functional tissues
    3. Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural plants
    4. Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting series of drug trials in a population
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Studying the evolutionary relationships among various species of fauna

    Explanation

    Microsatellites (short tandem repeats) are genetic markers used in population genetics and evolutionary/phylogenetic studies.

  71. Q71Open question

    Consider the following statements with reference to India: 1. According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between ₹15 crore and ₹25 crore. 2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Explanation

    Medium enterprises (2020 criteria) have investment up to ₹50 crore and turnover up to ₹250 crore; the original 2006 Act said ₹5–10 crore. Not all MSME loans qualify as priority sector (only micro/small fully; medium with conditions).

  72. Q72Open question

    With reference to Central Bank digital currencies, consider the following statements: 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital currency without using US dollar or SWIFT system. 2. A digital currency can be distributed with a condition programmed into it such as a timeframe for spending it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    CBDCs can enable cross-border payments bypassing the dollar/SWIFT and can be programmable (e.g., expiry or purpose-bound).

  73. Q73Open question

    In the context of finance, the term 'beta' refers to

    1. the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms
    2. an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward
    3. a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible
    4. a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations of a stock to changes in the overall stock market

    Explanation

    Beta measures a stock's volatility relative to the overall market.

  74. Q74Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. 2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. 3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    The SHG-Bank Linkage Programme was launched by NABARD (1992). Members share joint liability, and RRBs and commercial banks lend to SHGs.

  75. Q75Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-II: Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

    Explanation

    Both are true (health is a State subject), but state responsibility does not explain the curative focus.

  76. Q76Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: According to the United Nations' 'World Water Development Report, 2022', India extracts more than a quarter of the world's groundwater withdrawal each year. Statement-II: India needs to extract more than a quarter of the world's groundwater each year to satisfy the drinking water and sanitation needs of almost 18% of world's population living in its territory. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

    Explanation

    India is the largest groundwater extractor (about 25%+). Most of it goes to irrigation, not drinking water and sanitation.

  77. Q77Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    Art. 355 imposes the duty on the Union, and Art. 22(3) excludes preventive detainees from the right to counsel. POTA made confessions to senior police officers admissible.

  78. Q78Open question

    Which one of the following countries has been suffering from decades of civil strife and food shortages and was in news in the recent past for its very severe famine?

    1. Angola
    2. Costa Rica
    3. Ecuador
    4. Somalia
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Somalia

    Explanation

    Somalia faced severe drought-driven famine conditions in 2022–23 amid prolonged conflict.

  79. Q79Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. 2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Under the Biological Diversity Act, local BMCs are central to access and benefit sharing (Nagoya Protocol) and can levy collection fees (Sec 41(3)).

  80. Q80Open question

    Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India: 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only one

    Explanation

    Only statement 4 is correct (Puducherry 16 vs Arunachal 8). Nominated members are excluded, the value of an MLA's vote varies inversely with seats (population/seats/1000), and MP (131) is lower than Kerala (152).

  81. Q81Open question

    With reference to the Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with

    1. archaeological excavations
    2. establishment of English Press in Colonial India
    3. establishment of Churches in Princely States
    4. construction of railways in Colonial India
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) archaeological excavations

    Explanation

    All were archaeologists/antiquarians who excavated and documented sites (e.g., Amaravati, Nagarjunakonda, Hampi).

  82. Q82Open question

    Consider the following pairs: Site — Well known for 1. Besnagar — Shaivite cave shrine 2. Bhaja — Buddhist cave shrine 3. Sittanavasal — Jain cave shrine How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    Bhaja (Buddhist) and Sittanavasal (Jain) are correct. Besnagar is known for the Heliodorus (Garuda) pillar, a Vaishnava site.

  83. Q83Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the National Handloom Day. Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi Movement was launched on the same day. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I

    Explanation

    National Handloom Day (since 2015) commemorates the launch of the Swadeshi Movement on 7 August 1905.

  84. Q84Open question

    Consider the following statements in respect of the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm × 400 mm. Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3 : 2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I

    Explanation

    Both are true under the Flag Code 2002 (600×400 is one of nine standard sizes; ratio 3:2), but the ratio does not explain why that particular size is standard.

  85. Q85Open question

    Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

    Explanation

    The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949. The Drafting Committee was set up on 29 August 1947.

  86. Q86Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Switzerland is one of the leading exporters of gold in terms of value. Statement-II: Switzerland has the second largest gold reserves in the world. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Switzerland is a top gold exporter (refining hub). The second largest reserves belong to Germany (after the USA).

  87. Q87Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Recently, the United States of America (USA) and the European Union (EU) have launched the 'Trade and Technology Council'. Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that through this they are trying to bring technological progress and physical productivity under their control. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

    Explanation

    The TTC was launched in 2021 to coordinate trade and technology policy based on shared values, not to 'control' technological progress.

  88. Q88Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global export of goods. Statement-II: Many local companies and some foreign companies operating in India have taken advantage of India's 'Production-linked Incentive' scheme. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

    Explanation

    India's share of global merchandise exports is about 1.8%. Many firms have used the PLI scheme.

  89. Q89Open question

    Consider the following statements: The 'Stability and Growth Pact' of the European Union is a treaty that 1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union 2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilities 3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologies How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only one

    Explanation

    The SGP sets fiscal rules (deficit 3% of GDP, debt 60%); it does not concern infrastructure or technology sharing.

  90. Q90Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Recently, all the countries of the United Nations have adopted the first-ever compact for international migration, the 'Global Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular Migration (GCM)'. 2. The objectives and commitments stated in the GCM are binding on the UN member countries. 3. The GCM addresses internal migration or internally displaced people also in its objectives and commitments. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None

    Explanation

    GCM (2018) was not adopted by all members (e.g., US opposed), is non-binding, and covers international, not internal, migration.

  91. Q91Open question

    With reference to Home Guards, consider the following statements: 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security. 3. To prevent infiltration on the international border/coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States. How many of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    Home Guards are raised under State Home Guards Acts and Rules. They act as a police auxiliary, and Border Wing battalions exist in border states.

  92. Q92Open question

    With reference to India, consider the following pairs: Action — The Act under which it is covered 1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms — The Official Secrets Act, 1923 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties — The Indian Evidence Act, 1872 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others — The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019 How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    OSA Sec 6 covers unauthorised uniforms and the Arms (Amendment) Act 2019 penalises celebratory gunfire. Interfering with police/military officers is covered under OSA Sec 7, not the Evidence Act.

  93. Q93Open question

    Consider the following pairs: Regions often mentioned in news — Reason for being in news 1. North Kivu and Ituri — War between Armenia and Azerbaijan 2. Nagorno-Karabakh — Insurgency in Mozambique 3. Kherson and Zaporizhzhia — Dispute between Israel and Lebanon How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None

    Explanation

    North Kivu/Ituri are in the DRC (conflict), Nagorno-Karabakh concerns Armenia-Azerbaijan, and Kherson/Zaporizhzhia are in Ukraine.

  94. Q94Open question

    Consider the following statements: Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic relations with some Arab States. Statement-II: The 'Arab Peace Initiative' mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel and Arab League. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

    1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
    2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
    3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
    4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

    Explanation

    Israel has ties with Egypt, Jordan, UAE, Bahrain, Morocco etc. The 2002 Arab Peace Initiative was a Saudi proposal endorsed by the Arab League and not signed by Israel.

  95. Q95Open question

    Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards: 1. Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award — For the most spectacular and outstanding performance by a sportsperson over period of last four years 2. Arjuna Award — For the lifetime achievement by a sportsperson 3. Dronacharya Award — To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams 4. Rashtriya Khel Protsahan Puraskar — To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    Khel Ratna and Dronacharya are correctly described. Arjuna is for consistent good performance over four years, and RKPP recognises organisations promoting sports.

  96. Q96Open question

    Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: 1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India. 2. The official mascot was named 'Thambi'. 3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup. 4. The trophy for the winning team in the women's section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup. How many of the statements given above are correct?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. Only three
    4. All four
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only two

    Explanation

    The Chennai 2022 Olympiad was India's first and its mascot was Thambi. The trophies are swapped: Hamilton-Russell Cup is for the open section and Vera Menchik Cup for women.

  97. Q97Open question

    Consider the following pairs: Area of conflict mentioned in news — Country where it is located 1. Donbas — Syria 2. Kachin — Ethiopia 3. Tigray — North Yemen How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None

    Explanation

    Donbas is in Ukraine, Kachin in Myanmar and Tigray in Ethiopia.

  98. Q98Open question

    In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan caught the international attention for which one of the following reasons common to all of them?

    1. Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth elements
    2. Establishment of Chinese military bases
    3. Southward expansion of Sahara Desert
    4. Successful coups
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Successful coups

    Explanation

    All four saw successful military coups in 2020–21 (the 'coup belt').

  99. Q99Open question

    Consider the following heavy industries: 1. Fertilizer plants 2. Oil refineries 3. Steel plants Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?

    1. Only one
    2. Only two
    3. All three
    4. None
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) All three

    Explanation

    Green hydrogen can replace grey hydrogen in ammonia/fertiliser and refineries and act as a reductant in steel making.

  100. Q100Open question

    Consider the following statements about G-20: 1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the international economic and financial issues. 2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India's G-20 priorities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    G20 began in 1999 as a finance ministers/central bank governors forum, and DPI was a key priority of India's 2023 presidency.

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