1. Q1Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: Maintaining an ecosystem just to conserve biodiversity will affect its commercial potential as well as the livelihoods dependent on the ecosystem. There is also a conflict between using an ecosystem only for livelihoods, for commercial exploitation, or strictly for conservation. Deforestation caused due to commercial exploitation will lead to indirect harm like floods, siltation problems and microclimatic instability, apart from adversely affecting livelihoods dependent on forests. These conflicts are particularly acute in developing countries where the dependence of people on the ecosystem is significant, and commercial exploitation has the potential to boost national income. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?

    1. Conservation of biodiversity is not an issue to be worried about when some people depend on ecosystems for their livelihoods.
    2. Commercial exploitation of forests goes against the fundamental rights of the people dependent on forests for food and shelter.
    3. Sustenance of livelihood and degradation of ecosystem while being together exacerbate one another, leading to conflicts and imbalance.
    4. Commercial exploitation of ecosystems should be completely stopped.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Sustenance of livelihood and degradation of ecosystem while being together exacerbate one another, leading to conflicts and imbalance.

    Explanation

    The passage is about the competing uses of ecosystems (livelihood, commerce, conservation) and how they conflict and harm one another, especially in developing countries. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  2. Q2Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: Maintaining an ecosystem just to conserve biodiversity will affect its commercial potential as well as the livelihoods dependent on the ecosystem. There is also a conflict between using an ecosystem only for livelihoods, for commercial exploitation, or strictly for conservation. Deforestation caused due to commercial exploitation will lead to indirect harm like floods, siltation problems and microclimatic instability, apart from adversely affecting livelihoods dependent on forests. These conflicts are particularly acute in developing countries where the dependence of people on the ecosystem is significant, and commercial exploitation has the potential to boost national income. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. No country needs to depend on ecosystems to boost national income. II. Resource-rich countries need to share their resources with those of scant resources so as to prevent the degradation of ecosystems. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Neither I nor II

    Explanation

    The passage says commercial exploitation can boost national income (contradicting I) and says nothing about sharing resources between countries (II). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  3. Q3Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: The history of renewable energy suggests there is a steep learning curve, meaning that, as more is produced, costs fall rapidly because of economies of scale and learning by doing. The firms' green innovation is path-dependent: the more a firm does, the more it is likely to do in the future. The strongest evidence for this is the collapse in the price of solar energy, which became about 90% cheaper during the 2010s, repeatedly beating forecasts. Moving early and gradually gives economies more time to adjust, allowing them to reap the benefits of path-dependent green investment without much disruption. A late, more chaotic transition is costlier. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the passage?

    1. Economies of scale is essential for transition to green growth.
    2. Modern technological progress is intensely linked to path-dependent innovations.
    3. Countries with large economies are in a better position to adopt green technologies.
    4. Timing plays a crucial role in the case of green technology development.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Timing plays a crucial role in the case of green technology development.

    Explanation

    The conclusion is that moving early and gradually pays off while a late, chaotic transition is costlier, so timing is the central idea. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  4. Q4Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: The history of renewable energy suggests there is a steep learning curve, meaning that, as more is produced, costs fall rapidly because of economies of scale and learning by doing. The firms' green innovation is path-dependent: the more a firm does, the more it is likely to do in the future. The strongest evidence for this is the collapse in the price of solar energy, which became about 90% cheaper during the 2010s, repeatedly beating forecasts. Moving early and gradually gives economies more time to adjust, allowing them to reap the benefits of path-dependent green investment without much disruption. A late, more chaotic transition is costlier. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Path-dependent green investments will eventually most likely benefit growth as well as public finances in a country like India. II. If other green technologies follow the same pattern as that of solar energy, there will most likely be an easy green transition. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both I and II

    Explanation

    Early, path-dependent green investment lets economies reap benefits without disruption (I), and the solar learning-curve pattern repeated elsewhere would make the transition easier (II). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  5. Q5Open question

    A natural number N is such that it can be expressed as N = p + q + r, where p, q and r are distinct factors of N. How many numbers below 50 have this property?

    1. 6
    2. 7
    3. 8
    4. 9
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 8

    Explanation

    Writing p = N/a etc. needs 1/a + 1/b + 1/c = 1 with distinct a, b, c, whose only solution is (2, 3, 6). So N must be a multiple of 6 (N = N/2 + N/3 + N/6): 6, 12, ..., 48 = 8 numbers. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  6. Q6Open question

    Three prime numbers p, q and r, each less than 20, are such that p - q = q - r. How many distinct possible values can we get for (p + q + r)?

    1. 4
    2. 5
    3. 6
    4. More than 6
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) More than 6

    Explanation

    p, q, r form an arithmetic progression, so p + q + r = 3q. Equal primes (p = q = r) give 3q for all 8 primes below 20, and genuine progressions such as 3, 5, 7 add no new q values beyond these, so there are more than 6 values. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  7. Q7Open question

    How many possible values of (p + q + r) are there satisfying 1/p + 1/q + 1/r = 1, where p, q and r are natural numbers (not necessarily distinct)?

    1. None
    2. One
    3. Three
    4. More than three
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Three

    Explanation

    The solutions are (3, 3, 3), (2, 4, 4) and (2, 3, 6), giving sums 9, 10 and 11: three values. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  8. Q8Open question

    What comes at X and Y respectively in the following sequence? January, January, December, October, X, March, October, Y, September

    1. July, May
    2. July, April
    3. June, May
    4. June, April
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) July, April

    Explanation

    Moving through the months, the steps are 0, -1, -2, -3, -4, -5, -6, -7: Jan, Jan, Dec, Oct, July, March, Oct, April, Sept. So X = July and Y = April. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  9. Q9Open question

    Team X scored a total of N runs in 20 overs. Team Y tied the score in 10% less overs. Had team Y's average run rate (runs per over) been 50% higher, the scores would have been tied in 12 overs. How many runs were scored by team X?

    1. 72
    2. 144
    3. 216
    4. Cannot be determined
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Cannot be determined

    Explanation

    Y's rate is N/18; at 1.5 times that rate Y reaches N in 12 overs for any N. The data are consistent for every N, so N cannot be determined. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  10. Q10Open question

    The price (p) of a commodity is first increased by k%; then decreased by k%; again increased by k%; and again decreased by k%. If the new price is q, then what is the relation between p and q?

    1. p(10^4 - k^2)^2 = q × 10^8
    2. p(10^4 - k^2)^2 = q × 10^4
    3. p(10^4 - k^2) = q × 10^4
    4. p(10^4 - k^2) = q × 10^8
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) p(10^4 - k^2)^2 = q × 10^8

    Explanation

    q = p(1 + k/100)²(1 - k/100)² = p(10^4 - k²)²/10^8. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  11. Q11Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: Each State in India faces a distinctive set of challenges regarding the impact of warming, but also offers its own set of opportunities for reducing emissions depending on its natural resources. For example, coastal States need to take action to protect their shores from sea level rise, districts that are drier need to prepare for variable monsoon precipitation. Himalayan regions have their own unique challenges, and selected parts of peninsular India and offshore areas offer great opportunities for harnessing wind power. These various aspects need to be considered for developing clear and sustainable goals for the future. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and pragmatic message conveyed by the author of the passage?

    1. The mitigation and adaptation strategies to address/tackle the climate change is essentially the responsibility of each State.
    2. India is too diverse to implement any effective strategy or programme to address/tackle the climate change.
    3. It is basically the responsibility of the Union Government to implement the climate action plans and ensure net zero emissions.
    4. India needs to formulate effective climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies at the State/region level.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) India needs to formulate effective climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies at the State/region level.

    Explanation

    Each state has distinctive challenges and opportunities, so strategies should be framed at the state/regional level. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  12. Q12Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: Each State in India faces a distinctive set of challenges regarding the impact of warming, but also offers its own set of opportunities for reducing emissions depending on its natural resources. For example, coastal States need to take action to protect their shores from sea level rise, districts that are drier need to prepare for variable monsoon precipitation. Himalayan regions have their own unique challenges, and selected parts of peninsular India and offshore areas offer great opportunities for harnessing wind power. These various aspects need to be considered for developing clear and sustainable goals for the future. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Green energy production can be linked to/integrated with the climate change mitigation and adaptation strategies. II. Effects of climate change are much more severe in coastal and mountainous regions. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) I only

    Explanation

    Wind-power opportunities are presented alongside adaptation needs (I). The passage does not rank coastal and mountain regions as more severely affected (II). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  13. Q13Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: If the social inequality is the most acutely felt social problem in India, insecurity, more than poverty, is the most acutely felt economic problem. Besides those below the official poverty line, even those just over the poverty line are subject to multiple economic insecurities of various kinds (due to wealth and/or health risks, market fluctuations, job-related uncertainties). Many Government policies are actually intended towards mitigating these insecurities. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the passage?

    1. India's political executive should be aware that poverty and social inequality and the consequent sense of insecurity is the main social problem.
    2. In India, poverty is the primary reason for social inequality and insecurity.
    3. Poverty and social inequality are so intricately linked that they pose an unmanageable crisis for India.
    4. Insecurity, more than poverty, is the main economic issue that Government policies must address.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Insecurity, more than poverty, is the main economic issue that Government policies must address.

    Explanation

    The passage says insecurity, more than poverty, is the most acutely felt economic problem, and policies aim to mitigate it. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  14. Q14Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: If the social inequality is the most acutely felt social problem in India, insecurity, more than poverty, is the most acutely felt economic problem. Besides those below the official poverty line, even those just over the poverty line are subject to multiple economic insecurities of various kinds (due to wealth and/or health risks, market fluctuations, job-related uncertainties). Many Government policies are actually intended towards mitigating these insecurities. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. People above the poverty line also are prone to suffer from anxiety about economic insecurity. II. Eradication of poverty can result in peace and social equality in the country. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) I only

    Explanation

    Those just above the poverty line face multiple insecurities (I). Nothing links poverty eradication to peace and equality (II). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  15. Q15Open question

    A solid cube is painted yellow on all its faces. The cube is then cut into 60 smaller but equal pieces by making the minimum number of cuts. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. The minimum number of cuts is 9. II. The number of smaller pieces which are not painted on any face is 6. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both I and II

    Explanation

    60 = 3 × 4 × 5 needs 2 + 3 + 4 = 9 cuts. Unpainted inner pieces = 1 × 2 × 3 = 6. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  16. Q16Open question

    If 7 * 24 = 25 and 12 * 16 = 20, then what is 16 * 63 equal to?

    1. 70
    2. 66
    3. 65
    4. 64
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 65

    Explanation

    a * b = √(a² + b²): √(49 + 576) = 25, √(144 + 256) = 20, so √(256 + 3969) = √4225 = 65. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  17. Q17Open question

    The petrol price shot up by 10% as a result of the hike in crude oil prices. The price of petrol before the hike was Rs 90 per litre. A person travels 2200 km every month and his car gives a mileage of 16 km per litre. By how many km should he reduce his travel if he wants to maintain his expenditure at the previous level?

    1. 180 km
    2. 200 km
    3. 220 km
    4. 240 km
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 200 km

    Explanation

    Spend = 2200/16 × 90 = Rs 12,375. At Rs 99/litre this buys 125 litres = 2000 km, so he must cut 200 km. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  18. Q18Open question

    A 4-digit number N is such that when divided by 3, 5, 6, 9 leaves a remainder 1, 3, 4, 7 respectively. What is the smallest value of N?

    1. 1068
    2. 1072
    3. 1078
    4. 1082
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1078

    Explanation

    Each remainder is 2 less than the divisor, so N + 2 is a multiple of LCM(3, 5, 6, 9) = 90. N = 90k - 2; the smallest 4-digit value is 90 × 12 - 2 = 1078. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  19. Q19Open question

    Consider the following statements: I. If A ≤ B > C < D > E > F ≥ G = H; then B is always greater than E. II. If P > Q = R ≥ S = T ≤ U = V > W; then S is always less than V. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Neither I nor II

    Explanation

    In I, B and E are separated by C < D, so no fixed relation. In II, S = T ≤ U = V allows S = V, so S is not always less. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  20. Q20Open question

    What is the unit digit in the multiplication of 1 × 3 × 5 × 7 × 9 × ... × 999?

    1. 1
    2. 3
    3. 5
    4. 9
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 5

    Explanation

    The product of odd numbers including 5 ends in 5. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  21. Q21Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: One of the dismal realities of the agricultural sector in independent India has been that it never experienced a high-growth phase, unlike the non-agricultural economy. The highest decadal growth (compound annual growth rate or CAGR) for agriculture has been just 3.5% in the 1980s. Also, after experiencing a spurt in decadal growth during the 1980s, agricultural growth suffered relative stagnation thereafter. This is in sharp contrast to non-agricultural growth, which consistently increased from the 1980s to 2000s. Which one of the following statements best reflects the corollary to the above passage?

    1. The benefit of economic reforms percolates down more slowly to the agriculture sector than in other sectors of the economy.
    2. For India, the green revolution was not as useful as it was expected to be.
    3. India lagged behind other countries in adapting mechanized and modern farming.
    4. Rural-to-urban migration resulted in the stagnant agriculture sector.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) The benefit of economic reforms percolates down more slowly to the agriculture sector than in other sectors of the economy.

    Explanation

    Agriculture stagnated after the 1980s while non-agricultural growth kept rising through the reform decades, implying reform gains reached agriculture more slowly. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  22. Q22Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: One of the dismal realities of the agricultural sector in independent India has been that it never experienced a high-growth phase, unlike the non-agricultural economy. The highest decadal growth (compound annual growth rate or CAGR) for agriculture has been just 3.5% in the 1980s. Also, after experiencing a spurt in decadal growth during the 1980s, agricultural growth suffered relative stagnation thereafter. This is in sharp contrast to non-agricultural growth, which consistently increased from the 1980s to 2000s. With reference to the passage, the following assumptions have been made: The growing divergence between the fortunes of the agricultural and non-agricultural economy in India could have been reduced/contained by: I. adapting large-scale cultivation of commercial crops and viable corporate farming. II. providing free insurance for all crops and heavily subsidizing seeds, fertilizers, electricity and farm machinery at par with developed countries. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Neither I nor II

    Explanation

    The passage only describes the growth gap; it suggests no remedies such as corporate farming or subsidies. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  23. Q23Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: In our country, handlooms are equated with a culture that ensures a continuity of tradition. This idea has become part of the public policy-framing and provides a legitimate basis for the State to support the sector. But the notion of tradition as a single, linear entity is being strongly contested today. The narratives dominant in defining culture/tradition in a particular way are seen to have emerged as the identities and histories of large sections. The discounted and, at times, forcibly stifled identities are fighting for their rightful place in history. Against this backdrop, when we promote handloom as a traditional industry, it is not surprising that large sections of our population choose to ignore it. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the author of the passage?

    1. We need to free the handloom industry from the limited narrative linked to preserving cultural heritage.
    2. Continued State support to the handloom industry ensures the preservation of some of our glorious art forms and old traditions.
    3. Household units of the handloom sector should be modernized and made an economically viable organized industry.
    4. Handloom products need to be converted to machine-made designer products so as to make them more popular.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) We need to free the handloom industry from the limited narrative linked to preserving cultural heritage.

    Explanation

    Promoting handloom only as 'tradition' makes many people ignore it because that tradition is contested; the industry needs a wider narrative. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  24. Q24Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: In our country, handlooms are equated with a culture that ensures a continuity of tradition. This idea has become part of the public policy-framing and provides a legitimate basis for the State to support the sector. But the notion of tradition as a single, linear entity is being strongly contested today. The narratives dominant in defining culture/tradition in a particular way are seen to have emerged as the identities and histories of large sections. The discounted and, at times, forcibly stifled identities are fighting for their rightful place in history. Against this backdrop, when we promote handloom as a traditional industry, it is not surprising that large sections of our population choose to ignore it. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. There is no need for the State to be involved in any manner in the handloom sector. II. Handloom products are no longer appealing and attractive in the rapidly changing modern world. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Neither I nor II

    Explanation

    The passage questions the tradition narrative, not State involvement (I), and attributes neglect to identity politics, not product appeal (II). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  25. Q25Open question

    Consider the first 100 natural numbers. How many of them are NOT divisible by any one of 2, 3, 5, 7 and 9?

    1. 20
    2. 21
    3. 22
    4. 23
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 22

    Explanation

    9 is covered by 3. Numbers up to 100 divisible by 2, 3, 5 or 7 number 78 by inclusion-exclusion, so 100 - 78 = 22 (1 and the 21 primes from 11 to 97). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  26. Q26Open question

    If 4 ≤ x ≤ 8 and 2 ≤ y ≤ 7, then what is the ratio of maximum value of (x + y) to minimum value of (x - y)?

    1. 6
    2. 15/2
    3. -15/2
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None of the above

    Explanation

    Max (x + y) = 15 and min (x - y) = 4 - 7 = -3, so the ratio is -5, which is not listed. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  27. Q27Open question

    Let both p and k be prime numbers such that (p² + k) is also a prime number less than 30. What is the number of possible values of k?

    1. 4
    2. 5
    3. 6
    4. 7
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 5

    Explanation

    p = 2: 4 + k is prime for k = 3, 7, 13, 19. p = 3: 9 + 2 = 11 (k = 2). So k ∈ {2, 3, 7, 13, 19}: 5 values. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  28. Q28Open question

    There are n sets of numbers each having only three positive integers with LCM equal to 1001 and HCF equal to 1. What is the value of n?

    1. 6
    2. 7
    3. 8
    4. More than 8
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) More than 8

    Explanation

    1001 = 7 × 11 × 13. Many triples of divisors have LCM 1001 and HCF 1 (e.g. {1, 7, 143}, {7, 11, 13}, {1, 1001, x}, {7, 11, 91}...), well over 8. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  29. Q29Open question

    Let PQR be a 3-digit number, PPT be a 3-digit number and PS be a 2-digit number, where P, Q, R, S, T are distinct non-zero digits. Further, PQR - PS = PPT. If Q = 3 and T < 6, then what is the number of possible values of (R, S)?

    1. 2
    2. 3
    3. 4
    4. More than 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 3

    Explanation

    100P + 10Q + R - (10P + S) = 110P + T gives 10Q + R - S - T = 20P. With Q = 3 only P = 1 works, so S + T = R + 10 with T < 6 and all digits distinct and non-zero: (R, S, T) = (2, 8, 4), (2, 7, 5), (4, 9, 5). That gives 3 values of (R, S). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  30. Q30Open question

    Consider the sequence AB_CC_A_BCCC_BBC_C that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence?

    1. B, C, B, C, A
    2. A, C, B, C, A
    3. B, C, B, A, C
    4. C, B, B, A, C
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) B, C, B, A, C

    Explanation

    Filling B, C, B, A, C gives ABBCCC ABBCCC ABBCCC, a repeating block. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  31. Q31Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: In our country, regrettably, teaching and learning for the examination have been our forte but the new demands of society and the future of work require critical and independent thinking, learning through doing, asking questions from multiple disciplinary perspectives on the same issue, using evidence for building arguments, and reflecting and articulation. Higher education should not "either be a mere servant of the government policy or a passive respondent to public mood." Higher learning is all about how to think rather than what to think. Teaching has to be re-invented. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?

    1. India does not have enough resources for promoting quality education in its universities.
    2. The institutions of higher learning in the country should not be under the control of the Government.
    3. Classroom approach to higher education should be done away with.
    4. Classroom needs to be reimagined and teaching needs to be re-invented.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Classroom needs to be reimagined and teaching needs to be re-invented.

    Explanation

    The passage calls for critical, independent thinking and ends: 'Teaching has to be re-invented.' (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  32. Q32Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: In our country, regrettably, teaching and learning for the examination have been our forte but the new demands of society and the future of work require critical and independent thinking, learning through doing, asking questions from multiple disciplinary perspectives on the same issue, using evidence for building arguments, and reflecting and articulation. Higher education should not "either be a mere servant of the government policy or a passive respondent to public mood." Higher learning is all about how to think rather than what to think. Teaching has to be re-invented. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Higher education is a constantly evolving subject that needs to align towards new developments in all spheres of society. II. In our country, sufficient funds are not allocated for promoting higher education. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) I only

    Explanation

    New demands of society and work require changing higher education (I). Funding is never mentioned (II). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  33. Q33Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: If there is inequality in the pattern of population growth, there is greater inequality in food production and utilization. As societies become wealthier, their consumption of animal products increases. This means that a greater proportion of such basic foodstuff as grains and legumes that could feed humans directly is instead being converted into feed for poultry and large farm animals. Yet this conversion of plant-based food into animal food for humans is far from efficient. Only 16% of the calories fed to chickens are recovered by us when we eat them. This conversion rate goes down to five to seven per cent in large animals that are fed grain to add fat and some protein before slaughter. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

    1. There is an urgent need for a public policy to promote the consumption of cereal-based foods in wealthier societies.
    2. Animal-based food is far less efficient than grain/plant-based food in terms of production and utilization.
    3. Plant-based protein should replace the animal-based protein in our daily diets.
    4. Inequality in food production and consumption is inevitable in any fast changing society.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Animal-based food is far less efficient than grain/plant-based food in terms of production and utilization.

    Explanation

    Converting grain to animal food recovers only 16% (chicken) or 5-7% (large animals) of calories. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  34. Q34Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: If there is inequality in the pattern of population growth, there is greater inequality in food production and utilization. As societies become wealthier, their consumption of animal products increases. This means that a greater proportion of such basic foodstuff as grains and legumes that could feed humans directly is instead being converted into feed for poultry and large farm animals. Yet this conversion of plant-based food into animal food for humans is far from efficient. Only 16% of the calories fed to chickens are recovered by us when we eat them. This conversion rate goes down to five to seven per cent in large animals that are fed grain to add fat and some protein before slaughter. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. The food manufacturing and processing industries in every country should align their objectives and processes in accordance with the changing needs of the societies. II. Wealthier societies tend to incur great loss of calories of food materials due to indirect utilization of their agricultural produce. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) II only

    Explanation

    Wealthier societies eat more animal products, feeding grain to animals and losing most calories (II). Food industries are not discussed (I). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  35. Q35Open question

    What is the maximum value of n such that 7 × 343 × 385 × 1000 × 2401 × 77777 is divisible by 35^n?

    1. 3
    2. 4
    3. 5
    4. 7
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 4

    Explanation

    35 = 5 × 7. Powers of 5: 385 gives 1 and 1000 gives 3, total 4. Powers of 7 are far more (10). So n = 4. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  36. Q36Open question

    What is X in the sequence 24, X, 12, 18, 36, 90?

    1. 18
    2. 12
    3. 9
    4. 6
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 12

    Explanation

    Multipliers 0.5, 1, 1.5, 2, 2.5: 24 × 0.5 = 12 = X, then 12, 18, 36, 90. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  37. Q37Open question

    P and Q walk along a circular track. They start at 5:00 a.m. from the same point in opposite directions. P walks at an average speed of 5 rounds per hour and Q walks at an average speed of 3 rounds per hour. How many times will they cross each other between 5:20 a.m. and 7:00 a.m.?

    1. 12
    2. 13
    3. 14
    4. 15
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 13

    Explanation

    Relative speed 8 rounds/hour, so they meet every 7.5 minutes (5:07:30, 5:15, 5:22:30, ...). Between 5:20 and 7:00 (excluding the meeting exactly at 7:00) there are 13 crossings. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  38. Q38Open question

    If P = +, Q = -, R = ×, S = ÷, then insert the proper notations between the successive numbers in the equation 60 _ 15 _ 3 _ 20 _ 4 = 20:

    1. SPRQ
    2. QRPS
    3. QRSP
    4. SPQR
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) QRPS

    Explanation

    60 - 15 × 3 + 20 ÷ 4 = 60 - 45 + 5 = 20, i.e. Q R P S. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  39. Q39Open question

    A tram overtakes 2 persons X and Y walking at an average speed of 3 km/hr and 4 km/hr in the same direction and completely passes them in 8 seconds and 9 seconds respectively. What is the length of the tram?

    1. 15 m
    2. 18 m
    3. 20 m
    4. 24 m
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 20 m

    Explanation

    (v - 3) × 8 = (v - 4) × 9 gives v = 12 km/h. Length = 9 km/h × 8 s = 2.5 m/s × 8 = 20 m. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  40. Q40Open question

    If N² = 12345678987654321, then how many digits does the number N have?

    1. 8
    2. 9
    3. 10
    4. 11
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 9

    Explanation

    N = 111111111 (111111111² = 12345678987654321), which has 9 digits. A 17-digit square has a 9-digit root. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  41. Q41Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: Over the next 30 years, many countries are promising to move to net-zero carbon, implying that household emissions will have to be cut to close to nothing. A leading climate scientist reckons that, at best, half the reduction might be achieved through demand-side measures, such as behavioural changes by individuals and households. And even that would require companies and governments to provide more incentives to change through supply-side investments to make low-carbon options cheaper and more widely available. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?

    1. Moving to net-zero carbon is possible only by the reduction in household emissions.
    2. Low-carbon behaviour in people can be brought about by incentivising them.
    3. Cheaper goods and services can be made available to people by using low-carbon technologies.
    4. Manufacturing industries that use low-carbon technologies should be provided with subsidies.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Low-carbon behaviour in people can be brought about by incentivising them.

    Explanation

    Behavioural change needs incentives from companies and governments that make low-carbon options cheaper and more available. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  42. Q42Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: Over the next 30 years, many countries are promising to move to net-zero carbon, implying that household emissions will have to be cut to close to nothing. A leading climate scientist reckons that, at best, half the reduction might be achieved through demand-side measures, such as behavioural changes by individuals and households. And even that would require companies and governments to provide more incentives to change through supply-side investments to make low-carbon options cheaper and more widely available. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Supply-side investments in companies can result in low-carbon behaviour in people. II. People are not capable of adapting low-carbon behaviour without the involvement of Government and Companies. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) I only

    Explanation

    Supply-side investments that make low-carbon options cheaper encourage behavioural change (I). Saying people are 'not capable' without them is too extreme (II). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  43. Q43Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: In only 50 years, the world's consumption of raw materials has nearly quadrupled, to more than 100 billion tons. Less than 9% of this is reused. Batteries of old vehicles contain materials such as lithium, cobalt, manganese and nickel that are pricey and can be hard to obtain. Supply chains are long and complicated. Buyers' risks are being aggravated by their suppliers' poor environmental and labour standards. Reusing materials makes sense. Once batteries reach the ends of their lives, they should go back to a factory where their ingredients can be recovered and put into new batteries. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and pragmatic message conveyed by the passage?

    1. Green economy is not possible without reusing critical minerals.
    2. Every sector of economy should adapt the reuse of material resources immediately.
    3. Circular economy can be beneficial for sustainable growth.
    4. Circular use of material resources is the only option for some industries for their survival.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Circular economy can be beneficial for sustainable growth.

    Explanation

    The passage argues reusing materials makes sense given rising consumption, low reuse and risky supply chains, i.e. a circular economy aids sustainable growth. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  44. Q44Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: In only 50 years, the world's consumption of raw materials has nearly quadrupled, to more than 100 billion tons. Less than 9% of this is reused. Batteries of old vehicles contain materials such as lithium, cobalt, manganese and nickel that are pricey and can be hard to obtain. Supply chains are long and complicated. Buyers' risks are being aggravated by their suppliers' poor environmental and labour standards. Reusing materials makes sense. Once batteries reach the ends of their lives, they should go back to a factory where their ingredients can be recovered and put into new batteries. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Automobile factories are examples of the circular economy. II. Economic growth is compatible with circular use of mineral resources. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) II only

    Explanation

    Recovering battery minerals for reuse supports growth with circular use (II). The passage does not claim automobile factories already are circular (I). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  45. Q45Open question

    A set (X) of 20 pipes can fill 70% of a tank in 14 minutes. Another set (Y) of 10 pipes fills 3/8th of the tank in 6 minutes. A third set (Z) of 16 pipes can empty half of the tank in 20 minutes. If half of the pipes of set X are closed and only half of the pipes of set Y are open, and all pipes of the set (Z) are open, then how long will it take to fill 50% of the tank?

    1. 8 minutes
    2. 10 minutes
    3. 12 minutes
    4. 16 minutes
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 16 minutes

    Explanation

    Per pipe per minute: X 1/400, Y 1/160, Z 1/640 (emptying). Net = 10/400 + 5/160 - 16/640 = 1/32 of the tank per minute, so 50% takes 16 minutes. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  46. Q46Open question

    If n is a natural number, then what is the number of distinct remainders of (1^n + 2^n) when divided by 4?

    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. 2
    4. 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 2

    Explanation

    n = 1: 3 leaves remainder 3. n ≥ 2: 2^n is divisible by 4, so the remainder is 1. Two distinct remainders. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  47. Q47Open question

    Let P = QQQ be a 3-digit number. What is the HCF of P and 481?

    1. 1
    2. 13
    3. 37
    4. 481
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 37

    Explanation

    QQQ = 111 × Q = 3 × 37 × Q and 481 = 13 × 37. Since Q is a single digit (not 13), the HCF is 37. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  48. Q48Open question

    What is the 489th digit in the number 123456789101112...?

    1. 0
    2. 3
    3. 6
    4. 9
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 9

    Explanation

    1-9 use 9 digits and 10-99 use 180 (total 189). The remaining 300 digits cover 100 three-digit numbers (100 to 199), so the 489th digit is the last digit of 199: 9. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  49. Q49Open question

    A mobile phone has been stolen. There are 3 suspects P, Q and R. They were questioned knowing that only one of them is guilty. Their responses are as follows: P: I did not steal. Q stole it. Q: R did not steal. I did not steal. R: I did not steal. I do not know who did it. Who stole the mobile phone?

    1. P
    2. Q
    3. R
    4. Cannot be concluded
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Cannot be concluded

    Explanation

    Nothing says who is lying or telling the truth, so no suspect can be singled out. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  50. Q50Open question

    Three teams P, Q, R participated in a tournament in which the teams play with one another exactly once. A win fetches a team 2 points and a draw 1 point. A team gets no point for a loss. Each team scored exactly one goal in the tournament. The team P got 3 points, Q got 2 points and R got 1 point. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. The result of the match between P and Q is a draw with the score 0-0. II. The number of goals scored by R against Q is 1.

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both I and II

    Explanation

    P = win + draw, Q = two draws, R = one draw + loss. So P beat R 1-0, P and Q drew 0-0, and Q and R drew 1-1. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  51. Q51Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: It is hard to predict how changes in the climate and the atmosphere's chemistry will affect the prevalence and virulence of agricultural diseases. But there is a risk that such changes will make some plant infections more common in all climatic zones, perhaps catastrophically so. Part of the problem is that centuries of selective breeding have refined the genomes of most high-value crops. They are spectacular at growing in today's conditions but genetic variations that are not immediately useful to them have been bred out. This is good for yields but bad for coping with changes. A minor disease or even an unknown one could suddenly rampage through a genetically honed crop. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?

    1. Global climate change adversely affects the productivity of crops.
    2. Our total dependence on genetically honed crops entails possible food insecurity.
    3. Our food security should not depend on agricultural productivity alone.
    4. Genetically honed crops should be replaced with their wild varieties in our present cultivation practices.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Our total dependence on genetically honed crops entails possible food insecurity.

    Explanation

    Genetically refined crops lack variation to cope with change, so a disease could sweep through them, threatening food supply. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  52. Q52Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: It is hard to predict how changes in the climate and the atmosphere's chemistry will affect the prevalence and virulence of agricultural diseases. But there is a risk that such changes will make some plant infections more common in all climatic zones, perhaps catastrophically so. Part of the problem is that centuries of selective breeding have refined the genomes of most high-value crops. They are spectacular at growing in today's conditions but genetic variations that are not immediately useful to them have been bred out. This is good for yields but bad for coping with changes. A minor disease or even an unknown one could suddenly rampage through a genetically honed crop. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Global climate change can result in the migration of several plant diseases to new areas. II. Scientific understanding of the wild relatives of our present crops would enable us to strengthen food security. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both I and II

    Explanation

    Climate change may make infections more common in all climatic zones (I). Crops lost useful genetic variation through breeding, so understanding wild relatives that retain it can help (II). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  53. Q53Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: "A good statesman, like any other sensible human being, learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters. For his supporters will push him to disaster unless his opponents show him where the dangers are. So if he is wise he will often pray to be delivered from his friends, because they will ruin him. But, though it hurts, he ought also to pray never to be left without opponents; for they keep him on the path of reason and good sense. The national unity of free people depends upon a sufficiently even balance of political power to make it impracticable for the administration to be arbitrary and for opposition to be revolutionary and irreconcilable." Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?

    1. Without opposition parties, the administration in a democracy gets to become more responsible.
    2. Democracy needs to have revolutionaries in opposition to keep the government alert.
    3. Rulers in a democracy need the support of opposition for their political survival.
    4. In a democracy, the opposition is indispensable for the balance of political power and good governance.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) In a democracy, the opposition is indispensable for the balance of political power and good governance.

    Explanation

    Opponents keep the statesman on the path of reason, and national unity depends on a balance of political power. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  54. Q54Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: "A good statesman, like any other sensible human being, learns more from his opponents than from his fervent supporters. For his supporters will push him to disaster unless his opponents show him where the dangers are. So if he is wise he will often pray to be delivered from his friends, because they will ruin him. But, though it hurts, he ought also to pray never to be left without opponents; for they keep him on the path of reason and good sense. The national unity of free people depends upon a sufficiently even balance of political power to make it impracticable for the administration to be arbitrary and for opposition to be revolutionary and irreconcilable." With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. In a democracy, a strong opposition is required only if the Head of Government is indifferent. II. The more aggressive the opposition, the better is the governance in a democracy. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Neither I nor II

    Explanation

    Opposition is always needed (not 'only if' the head is indifferent), and the passage warns against revolutionary, irreconcilable opposition. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  55. Q55Open question

    P is the brother of Q and R. S is R's mother. T is P's father. How many of the following statements are definitely true? I. S and T are a couple. II. Q is T's son. III. T is Q's father. IV. S is P's mother. V. R is T's daughter. VI. P is S's son. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. Only two
    2. Only three
    3. Only four
    4. Only five
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only four

    Explanation

    P, Q, R are siblings with mother S and father T, so I, III, IV and VI are definite. The genders of Q and R are unknown, so II and V are not. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  56. Q56Open question

    If NO is coded as 210, NOT is coded as 4200 and NOTE is coded as 21000, then how is NOTES coded?

    1. 399000
    2. 420000
    3. 440000
    4. 630000
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 399000

    Explanation

    Code = product of letter positions: N 14 × O 15 = 210, × T 20 = 4200, × E 5 = 21000, × S 19 = 399000. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  57. Q57Open question

    If FRANCE is coded as 654321 and GERMANY is coded as 9158437, then how is YEMEN coded?

    1. 54321
    2. 81913
    3. 71913
    4. 71813
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 71813

    Explanation

    From the codes: Y = 7, E = 1, M = 8, N = 3, so YEMEN = 71813. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  58. Q58Open question

    The 5-digit number PQRST (all distinct digits) is such that T ≠ 0. P is thrice T. S is greater than Q by 4, while Q is greater than R by 3. How many such 5-digit numbers are possible?

    1. 3
    2. 4
    3. 5
    4. 6
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 4

    Explanation

    (P, T) ∈ {(3,1), (6,2), (9,3)} and (R, Q, S) ∈ {(0,3,7), (1,4,8), (2,5,9)}. Keeping all digits distinct leaves 4 numbers: 63072, 64182, 94183, 35291. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  59. Q59Open question

    X can complete one-third of a certain work in 6 days, Y can complete one-third of the same work in 8 days and Z can complete three-fourth of the same work in 12 days. All of them work together for n days and then X and Z quit and Y alone finishes the remaining work in 8 2/3 days. What is n equal to?

    1. 3
    2. 4
    3. 5
    4. 6
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 4

    Explanation

    X takes 18 days, Y 24 and Z 16. Y's 26/3 days do 13/36 of the work, so together they did 23/36. Their combined rate is 23/144 per day, so n = 4. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  60. Q60Open question

    What is X in the sequence 1, 3, 6, 11, 18, X, 42?

    1. 26
    2. 27
    3. 29
    4. 30
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 29

    Explanation

    Differences are primes 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13: 18 + 11 = 29, 29 + 13 = 42. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  61. Q61Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: There has been no democracy that has grown economically without corporate capitalism. It helps in modernizing the economy and enabling the transition from rural to urban, and agriculture to industry and services, which are inevitable with growth. It generates jobs — and there is no other way to fix a country's unemployment challenge without a further impetus to private business. Big companies can operate on a large scale and become competitive both domestically and externally. A vibrant corporate capitalist base also leads to additional revenues for the State — which in turn, can be used for greater welfare for the marginalized and creating a more level playing field in terms of opportunities. Which one of the following statements best reflects the critical message conveyed by the author of the passage?

    1. Corporate capitalism is important for economic growth of a State and also for democracy.
    2. Corporate capitalism is imperative for a modern State to achieve its political objectives.
    3. No State can ensure its economic survival for long without the role of corporate capitalism.
    4. Corporate capitalism and democracy have mutual dependence for their continued existence.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Corporate capitalism is important for economic growth of a State and also for democracy.

    Explanation

    No democracy has grown without corporate capitalism, which modernises the economy, creates jobs and funds welfare. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  62. Q62Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: There has been no democracy that has grown economically without corporate capitalism. It helps in modernizing the economy and enabling the transition from rural to urban, and agriculture to industry and services, which are inevitable with growth. It generates jobs — and there is no other way to fix a country's unemployment challenge without a further impetus to private business. Big companies can operate on a large scale and become competitive both domestically and externally. A vibrant corporate capitalist base also leads to additional revenues for the State — which in turn, can be used for greater welfare for the marginalized and creating a more level playing field in terms of opportunities. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made: I. Corporate capitalism promotes the growth of labour force and provides more employment opportunities. II. Poor and marginalized sections of population are benefited by corporate capitalism due to trickle-down effect. Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both I and II

    Explanation

    It generates jobs (I), and its revenues fund welfare for the marginalised (II). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  63. Q63Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: "A network of voluntary associations stands as a 'buffer' between the relatively powerless individual and the potentially powerful State." Which one of the following statements reflects the best explanation of the above passage?

    1. It emphasizes the inability of the State to enforce its will in practice against the opposition of certain groups within it.
    2. It is a cooperative organization for the promotion of the well-being and development of the personality of its members.
    3. It takes individuals out of a state of isolation and gives them a chance to participate in the common endeavour.
    4. It permits citizens to have a variety of loyalties and allegiance.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) It takes individuals out of a state of isolation and gives them a chance to participate in the common endeavour.

    Explanation

    As a 'buffer', voluntary associations draw powerless individuals out of isolation into collective action. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  64. Q64Open question

    Consider the following statements: I. There exists a natural number which when increased by 50% can have its number of factors unchanged. II. There exists a natural number which when increased by 150% can have its number of factors unchanged. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both I and II

    Explanation

    2 increased by 50% becomes 3, and 2 increased by 150% becomes 5; all are primes with 2 factors each. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  65. Q65Open question

    There are 7 places A, B, C, D, E, F and G in a city connected by various roads AB, AC, CD, DE, BF, EG and FG. A is 6 km south of B. A is 10 km west of C. D is 5 km east of E. C is 6 km north of D. F is 9 km west of B. F is 12 km north of G. A person travels from D to F through these roads. What is the distance covered by the person?

    1. 20 km
    2. 25 km
    3. 31 km
    4. 37 km
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 31 km

    Explanation

    Place A at (0,0): B (0,6), C (10,0), D (10,-6), E (5,-6), F (-9,6), G (-9,-6). Route D-E-G-F = 5 + 14 + 12 = 31 km. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  66. Q66Open question

    In a certain code if 64 is written as 343 and 216 is written as 729, then how is 512 written in that code?

    1. 1000
    2. 1331
    3. 1728
    4. 2197
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1331

    Explanation

    64 = 4³ becomes 7³ and 216 = 6³ becomes 9³ (base + 3). 512 = 8³ becomes 11³ = 1331. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  67. Q67Open question

    What is the remainder when 9³ + 9⁴ + 9⁵ + 9⁶ + ... + 9¹⁰⁰ is divided by 6?

    1. 0
    2. 1
    3. 2
    4. 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 0

    Explanation

    Every power of 9 leaves remainder 3 on division by 6. There are 98 terms, so the sum ≡ 98 × 3 = 294 ≡ 0 (mod 6). (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  68. Q68Open question

    A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question: What is the smallest 1-digit number having exactly 4 distinct factors? Statement I: 2 is one of the factors. Statement II: 3 is one of the factors. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

    1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.
    2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
    3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
    4. The Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) The Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.

    Explanation

    6 (factors 1, 2, 3, 6) is the smallest such number, found without the statements. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  69. Q69Open question

    A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question: Let P, Q, R, S be distinct non-zero digits. If PP × PQ = RRSS, where P ≤ 3 and Q ≤ 4, then what is Q equal to? Statement I: R = 1. Statement II: S = 2. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

    1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.
    2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
    3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
    4. The Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) The Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.

    Explanation

    PP × PQ must be 4 digits, so P = 3: 33 × (30 + Q). Only Q = 4 gives the RRSS form (33 × 34 = 1122). The answer needs neither statement. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  70. Q70Open question

    A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question: How is Q related to P? Statement I: P has two sisters, R and S. Statement II: R's father is the brother of Q. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

    1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.
    2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
    3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
    4. The Question cannot be answered even using any of the Statements.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) The Question cannot be answered even using any of the Statements.

    Explanation

    Together, Q is a sibling of P's father, but Q's gender is unknown (uncle or aunt), so the relation cannot be fixed. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  71. Q71Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: A single number for inflation is an aggregate across different commodities and services — the price rise differs for different items of consumption. So, the single number is arrived at by assigning weights to different commodities and services. For WPI, the weights in production are used; for CPI, the consumption basket is used. But people are not homogeneous. The consumption basket is vastly different for the poor, the middle classes, and the rich. Hence, the CPI is different for each of these classes and a composite index requires averaging the baskets. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and crucial message conveyed by the passage?

    1. We must use WPI exclusively in measuring price rise and CPI should be done away with.
    2. The present calculation of inflation rate does not correctly measure price rise of individual item/commodity.
    3. Inflation data under-presents services in the consumption basket.
    4. Knowledge of inflation rate is not really of any use to anybody in the country.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) The present calculation of inflation rate does not correctly measure price rise of individual item/commodity.

    Explanation

    A single weighted aggregate cannot show the differing price rises of individual items or for different consumer groups. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  72. Q72Open question

    Read the following passage and answer the item that follows. Your answer should be based solely on the passage. Passage: Trust stands commonly defined as being vulnerable to others. Entrepreneurship implies trust in others and willingness to expose oneself to betrayal. Trust in expert systems is the essence of globalizing behaviour; trust itself emerges as a super-commodity in the social market and defines the characteristics of goods and services in a global market. Trusting conduct also means holding others in good esteem, and an optimism that they are, or will be, competent in certain respects. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage?

    1. Trustworthiness cannot be expected in entrepreneurship.
    2. Trustworthy people are the most vulnerable people.
    3. No economic activity is possible without being exposed to betrayal.
    4. Trust is important though it entails risk.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Trust is important though it entails risk.

    Explanation

    Trust means being vulnerable (risk of betrayal), yet it is essential to entrepreneurship and global markets. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  73. Q73Open question

    A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question: In a football match, team P playing against Q was behind by 3 goals with 10 minutes remaining. Does team P win the match? Statement I: Team P scored 4 goals in the last 10 minutes. Statement II: Team Q scored a total of 4 goals in the match. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

    1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.
    2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
    3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
    4. The Question cannot be answered even using any of the Statements.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) The Question cannot be answered even using any of the Statements.

    Explanation

    Even together we don't know how many of Q's 4 goals came in the last 10 minutes, so P's win cannot be confirmed. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  74. Q74Open question

    A question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements and mark the correct option. Question: Is (p + q)² - 4pq, where p, q are natural numbers, positive? Statement I: p < q. Statement II: p > q. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

    1. The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.
    2. The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
    3. The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
    4. The Question can be answered even without using any of the Statements.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.

    Explanation

    (p + q)² - 4pq = (p - q)², which is positive whenever p ≠ q; either statement gives p ≠ q. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  75. Q75Open question

    In a T20 cricket match, three players X, Y and Z scored a total of 37 runs. The ratio of number of runs scored by X to the number of runs scored by Y is equal to the ratio of number of runs scored by Y to number of runs scored by Z. Value-I = Runs scored by X Value-II = Runs scored by Y Value-III = Runs scored by Z Which one of the following is correct?

    1. Value-I < Value-II < Value-III
    2. Value-III < Value-II < Value-I
    3. Value-I < Value-III < Value-II
    4. Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

    Explanation

    X, Y, Z are in geometric progression summing to 37: both 9, 12, 16 and 16, 12, 9 work, so the order is undetermined. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  76. Q76Open question

    Let p + q = 10, where p, q are integers. Value-I = Maximum value of p × q when p, q are positive integers. Value-II = Maximum value of p × q when p ≥ -6, q ≥ -4. Which one of the following is correct?

    1. Value-I < Value-II
    2. Value-II < Value-I
    3. Value-I = Value-II
    4. Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Value-I = Value-II

    Explanation

    In both cases the maximum is at p = q = 5, giving 25. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  77. Q77Open question

    Consider a set of 11 numbers: Value-I = Minimum value of the average of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive integers ≥ -5. Value-II = Minimum value of the product of the numbers of the set when they are consecutive non-negative integers. Which one of the following is correct?

    1. Value-I < Value-II
    2. Value-II < Value-I
    3. Value-I = Value-II
    4. Cannot be determined due to insufficient data
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Value-I = Value-II

    Explanation

    Value-I: -5 to 5 has average 0. Value-II: 0 to 10 has product 0. They are equal. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  78. Q78Open question

    The average of three numbers p, q and r is k. p is as much more than the average as q is less than the average. What is the value of r?

    1. k
    2. k - 1
    3. k + 1
    4. k/2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) k

    Explanation

    p + q = 2k, and p + q + r = 3k, so r = k. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  79. Q79Open question

    Let x be a real number between 0 and 1. Which of the following statements is/are correct? I. x² > x³. II. x > √x. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. I only
    2. II only
    3. Both I and II
    4. Neither I nor II
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) I only

    Explanation

    For 0 < x < 1, higher powers are smaller, so x² > x³, and √x > x, so II is false. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

  80. Q80Open question

    The difference between any two natural numbers is 10. What can be said about the natural numbers which are divisible by 5 and lie between these two numbers?

    1. There is only one such number.
    2. There are only two such numbers.
    3. There can be more than one such number.
    4. No such number exists.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) There can be more than one such number.

    Explanation

    Between 5 and 15 lies only 10, but between 6 and 16 lie 10 and 15. So there can be more than one. (Answer as per the official UPSC answer key.)

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