What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

These are explosives in military weapons

These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants

These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles

These are fuels for rocket propulsion

Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions. Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement. Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'. Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector. Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis. Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy. Statement III: As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change. Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets. Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?

The Asian Development Bank (ADB)

The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)

The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

None of the above statements is correct

With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements: I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II. Marine phytoplankton and photo-synthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen. III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

None of the above statements is correct

The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was

a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes

a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley

a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks

a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the

level of the central administration

Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax. Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders. Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners. Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans. Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I

Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I

Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct

Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct

Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock. Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water. Statement III: Clay is not at all porous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I

Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I

Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Civil Services Examination Prelims 2025 Question Paper with Answers

Q1Open question
Consider the following types of vehicles: I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) All the three
Explanation
All three are alternative powertrain technologies replacing conventional ICE.
Q2Open question
With reference to Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs), consider the following statements: I. All types of UAVs can do vertical landing. II. All types of UAVs can do automated hovering. III. All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply. How many of the statements given above are correct?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) None
Explanation
None is universally true across all UAV types (fixed-wing UAVs can't hover/vertical land; many use fuel, not just battery).
Q3Open question
In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements: I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) Only three
Explanation
Cobalt, Lithium and Nickel form the cathode; Graphite is used in the anode.
Q4Open question
Consider the following: I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) All the three
Explanation
Cigarette filters (cellulose acetate), many eyeglass lenses (polymer/plastic) and tyres (synthetic rubber/plastic polymers) all contain plastic.
Q5Open question
Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Syngas from coal gasification can be converted to ethanol and used to make ammonia (for urea); nitroglycerine is not produced this way.
Q6Open question
What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?
1. These are alternatives to hydro-fluorocarbon refrigerants
2. These are explosives in military weapons
3. These are high-energy fuels for cruise missiles
4. These are fuels for rocket propulsion
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) These are explosives in military weapons
Explanation
CL-20, HMX and LLM-105 are high-energy explosive compounds used in military munitions.
Q7Open question
Consider the following statements: I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. How many of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) I and III only
Explanation
Majorana 1 was introduced by Microsoft, not AWS, so II is incorrect.
Q8Open question
With reference to monoclonal antibodies, often mentioned in news, consider the following statements: I. They are man-made proteins. II. They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens. III. They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) I, II and III
Explanation
Monoclonal antibodies are lab-made proteins that bind specific antigens and have been used experimentally against Nipah virus.
Q9Open question
Consider the following statements: I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria. III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. How many of the statements given above are correct?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) None
Explanation
All three statements are false: viruses thrive in oceans, bacteriophages infect bacteria, and many viruses alter host transcription.
Q10Open question
Statement I: Activated carbon is a good and attractive tool to remove pollutants from effluent streams and to remediate contaminants from various industries. Statement II: Activated carbon exhibits a large surface area and a strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals. Statement III: Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation
High surface area/adsorption capacity (II) and low-cost synthesis (III) together explain why activated carbon is an attractive depollution tool (I).
Q11Open question
Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions. Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement. Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
Explanation
Both II and III describe true parts of the cement-making process, but only the calcination in III (releasing CO2 from limestone) explains the high emissions in I.
Q12Open question
Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the 'Declaration on Climate and Health'. Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration; and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector. Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
Explanation
The Declaration is non-binding (II is false); India's stated concern about resilience being compromised (III) explains why it did not sign.
Q13Open question
Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis. Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy. Statement III: As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
Explanation
Both II and III are true phenomena, but redistribution of melting ice mass toward the equator (III) is the one that explains the Earth's axis/rotation shift.
Q14Open question
Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change. Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets. Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation
Article 6 covers both market mechanisms (II) and non-market approaches (III), both explaining why it is widely discussed (I).
Q15Open question
Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?
1. The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
2. The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB)
3. The New Development Bank (NDB)
4. The International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) The Asian Development Bank (ADB)
Explanation
The Asian Development Bank launched this hub.
Q16Open question
With reference to 'Direct Air Capture', an emerging technology, which of the following statements is/are correct? I. It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration. II. It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing. III. In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I and II only
2. III only
3. I, II and III
4. None of the above statements is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) I, II and III
Explanation
Captured CO2 can be sequestered, used as feedstock in plastics/food carbonation, and converted with hydrogen into synthetic aviation fuel.
Q17Open question
Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements: I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. I and III
3. II only
4. II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) II and III
Explanation
It is an arachnid (spider), not a crustacean; it is a tree-dwelling (arboreal) species restricted to limited forest habitat in Andhra Pradesh.
Q18Open question
Consider the following statements: I. Carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t CO2/capita. II. In terms of CO2 emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region. III. Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of CO2 emissions in India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I and III only
2. II only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) II and III only
Explanation
India's per capita CO2 emissions are well above 0.5t; it ranks second in Asia-Pacific after China; electricity/heat generation is the largest emission source.
Q19Open question
Consider the following pairs: Plant — Description I. Cassava — Woody shrub II. Ginger — Herb with pseudostem III. Malabar spinach — Herbaceous climber IV. Mint — Annual shrub V. Papaya — Woody shrub How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. All the five
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Only three
Explanation
Cassava (woody shrub), Malabar spinach (herbaceous climber) and Papaya (large soft-woody/shrub-like plant) are correctly matched; Ginger lacks a pseudostem and Mint is a perennial herb, not an annual shrub.
Q20Open question
With reference to the planet Earth, consider the following statements: I. Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans. II. Marine phytoplankton and photo-synthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen. III. Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I and II
2. II only
3. I and III
4. None of the above statements is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) II only
Explanation
Oceans (via phytoplankton/bacteria) produce roughly half of Earth's oxygen — more than rainforests; dissolved oxygen in water is actually far lower in concentration than in air.
Q21Open question
Consider the following statements about Raja Ram Mohan Roy: I. He possessed great love and respect for the traditional philosophical systems of the East. II. He desired his countrymen to accept the rational and scientific approach and the principle of human dignity and social equality of all men and women. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) Both I and II
Explanation
Both statements accurately describe Ram Mohan Roy's outlook.
Q22Open question
Consider the following subjects with regard to Non-Cooperation Programme: I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth II. Observance of strict non-violence III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes How many of the above were parts of Non-Cooperation Programme?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) Only three
Explanation
The programme required surrender (not retention) of titles; boycott, non-violence and panchayats were genuine parts of it.
Q23Open question
The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was
1. a water bag made of leather pulled over a pulley
2. a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
3. a larger earthen pot driven by bullocks
4. a large water bucket pulled up by rope directly by hand
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) a large wheel with earthen pots tied to the outer ends of its spokes
Explanation
Araghatta refers to the Persian-wheel type device with pots attached to a rotating wheel.
Q24Open question
Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?
1. Mahendravarman I
2. Simhavishnu
3. Narasimhavarman I
4. Simhavarman
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) Mahendravarman I
Explanation
These titles were assumed by the Pallava king Mahendravarman I.
Q25Open question
Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of
1. Samudragupta
2. Chandragupta II
3. Kumaragupta I
4. Skandagupta
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Chandragupta II
Explanation
Fa-hien travelled to India during the reign of Chandragupta II.
Q26Open question
Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?
1. Amoghavarsha (Rashtrakuta)
2. Pratparudra (Kakatiya)
3. Rajendra I (Chola)
4. Vishnuvardhana (Hoysala)
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) Rajendra I (Chola)
Explanation
The Chola king Rajendra I led a famous naval campaign against Srivijaya.
Q27Open question
With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs: Territorial region — River flowing in the region I. Asmaka — Godavari II. Kamboja — Vipas III. Avanti — Mahanadi IV. Kosala — Sarayu How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Asmaka-Godavari and Kosala-Sarayu are correctly paired; Kamboja and Avanti are wrongly matched with their rivers.
Q28Open question
The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in
1. Delhi
2. Gwalior
3. Ujjain
4. Lahore
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) Lahore
Explanation
It was established in Lahore in 1901.
Q29Open question
Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the
1. village-level administration
2. district-level administration
3. provincial administration
4. level of the central administration
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) provincial administration
Explanation
These were officials at the provincial administration level under the Mauryas.
Q30Open question
Consider the following statements in respect of the Non-Cooperation Movement: I. The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective. II. It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and the Government resorted to repression. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) Both I and II
Explanation
Both statements correctly describe the Nagpur session resolution on Non-Cooperation.
Q31Open question
With reference to investments, consider the following: I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Hedge Funds and Venture Capital are categorised as Alternative Investment Funds; bonds and stocks are traditional investments.
Q32Open question
Which of the following are the sources of income for the Reserve Bank of India? I. Buying and selling Government bonds II. Buying and selling foreign currency III. Pension fund management IV. Lending to private companies V. Printing and distributing currency notes Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I and II only
2. II, III and IV
3. I, III, IV and V
4. I, II and V
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) I and II only
Explanation
RBI earns income through open market operations (govt bonds) and forex operations; it does not manage pension funds or lend to private companies, and printing currency is an expense, not income.
Q33Open question
With reference to the Government of India, consider the following information: Organization — Some of its functions — It works under I. Directorate of Enforcement — Enforcement of the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 — Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs II. Directorate of Revenue Intelligence — Enforces the Provisions of the Customs Act, 1962 — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance III. Directorate General of Systems and Data Management — Carrying out big data analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders — Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance In how many of the above rows is the information correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
The Enforcement Directorate works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not Ministry of Home Affairs, making row I incorrect.
Q34Open question
Consider the following statements: I. The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR). II. In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) II only
Explanation
SEBI (not RBI) mandates BRSR for listed companies; BRSR disclosures are largely non-financial (ESG-related).
Q35Open question
Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas is exempted from any tax. Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Explanation
Poultry/wool-rearing income is treated as business income (taxable), so Statement I is wrong; rural agricultural land is indeed excluded from the definition of capital asset.
Q36Open question
Consider the following statements: I. India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member. II. India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified. III. The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) I and III only
Explanation
India joined the Minerals Security Partnership and the 2023 MMDR amendment empowered the Centre on critical mineral auctions; India is not resource-rich in all 30 identified critical minerals.
Q37Open question
Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders. Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners. Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement I explains Statement II
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation
Bondholders being lenders with repayment priority (II and III) together explain why they bear lower risk than stockholders (I).
Q38Open question
Consider the following statements: I. India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom. II. India's stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong's at some point of time. III. There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of options trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) I and II only
Explanation
India dominates global equity options volumes and its market cap briefly overtook Hong Kong's; SEBI actively regulates and warns on this, so III is false.
Q39Open question
Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
Explanation
Reduced raw material use and reduced production wastage both contribute to lower GHG emissions in a circular economy.
Q40Open question
Consider the following statements: I. Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government. II. Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts. III. Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) I and II only
Explanation
Capital receipts (I, II) are correctly described; interest received is a revenue receipt, not a liability-creating item, so III is wrong.
Q41Open question
Consider the following countries: I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?
1. Only three
2. Only four
3. Only five
4. All the six
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Only four
Explanation
Bulgaria, Croatia, Sweden and North Macedonia are NATO members; Austria and Serbia are not.
Q42Open question
Consider the following countries: I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?
1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. Only five
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) Only four
Explanation
The Andes pass through Bolivia, Colombia, Ecuador and Venezuela among the listed countries; not through Brazil or Paraguay.
Q43Open question
Consider the following water bodies: I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonle Sap III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) None
Explanation
None of these three water bodies lies on the equator.
Q44Open question
Consider the following statements about turmeric during the year 2022-23: I. India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. II. More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India. III. Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) I, II and III
Explanation
India leads global turmeric production/export, grows more than 30 varieties, with Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu as major producing states.
Q45Open question
Which of the following are the evidences of the phenomenon of continental drift? I. The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. II. The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. III. The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I and III only
2. I and II only
3. I, II and III
4. II and III only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) I, II and III
Explanation
All three are classic pieces of evidence cited for continental drift.
Q46Open question
Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
Explanation
Subtropical/temperate zones (including deserts) actually have more dry winds, which is what raises dust levels — so Statement II as worded is incorrect.
Q47Open question
Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans. Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
Explanation
In winter, oceans retain more warmth than landmasses, which is exactly why isotherms bend poleward over oceans.
Q48Open question
Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock. Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water. Statement III: Clay is not at all porous. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I
2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I
Explanation
Chalk's porosity (II) explains its permeability, but clay is actually porous (just not permeable due to small pore size), making III incorrect.
Q49Open question
Consider the following statements: I. Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface. II. Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature. III. Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and III only
2. I and II only
3. I, II and III
4. II and III only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) I, II and III
Explanation
All three statements correctly describe the greenhouse effect.
Q50Open question
Consider the following statements about the Rashtriya Gokul Mission: I. It is important for the upliftment of rural poor as majority of low producing indigenous animals are with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. II. It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) Both I and II
Explanation
Both statements correctly describe the Rashtriya Gokul Mission's rationale and objective.
Q51Open question
Consider the following statements: I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States. II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years. III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level. Which of the statements given above are not correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) I, II and III
Explanation
States with population below 20 lakh may skip the intermediate level (I false); minimum age to be a panchayat member is 21, not 30 (II false); the Governor, not the CM, constitutes the State Finance Commission (III false).
Q52Open question
Consider the following statements in respect of BIMSTEC: I. It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. II. It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration, 1999. III. Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC. IV. In BIMSTEC, the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I and II
2. II and III
3. I and IV
4. I only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) I and IV
Explanation
BIMSTEC has seven members and India leads the tourism subsector; it was founded via the Bangkok Declaration (1997), not Dhaka 1999, and Nepal joined later, not as a founding member.
Q53Open question
Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'? I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India III. The Chief Justice of India IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. II and IV only
2. I, II and III
3. II, III and IV
4. I and III only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) II, III and IV
Explanation
The Jury is chaired by the PM and includes the Chief Justice of India and the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha; the President is not on the jury.
Q54Open question
GPS-Aided Geo Augmented Navigation (GAGAN) uses a system of ground stations to provide necessary augmentation. Which of the following statements is/are correct in respect of GAGAN? I. It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity. II. It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management. III. It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I, II and III
2. II and III only
3. I only
4. I and II only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) I and II only
Explanation
GAGAN improves accuracy/integrity and air traffic management, but its benefits extend beyond aviation (e.g., agriculture, surveying), so III is false.
Q55Open question
Consider the following statements regarding AI Action Summit held in Grand Palais, Paris in February 2025: I. Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024. II. Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) I only
Explanation
The Summit was co-chaired with India and followed Bletchley Park and Seoul; the US and UK notably did not sign the joint declaration.
Q56Open question
Consider the following pairs: I. International Year of the Woman Farmer — 2026 II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism — 2027 III. International Year of Peace and Trust — 2025 IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence — 2029 How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) Only three
Explanation
2025 (Peace and Trust) and 2029 (Asteroid Awareness) are confirmed UN-designated years; verify the Woman Farmer and Tourism year designations against the latest UN list.
Q57Open question
Consider the following statements with regard to BRICS: I. 16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan. II. Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS. III. The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was 'Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security'. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I and II
2. II and III
3. I and III
4. I only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) I and II
Explanation
Russia chaired the 16th BRICS Summit in Kazan and Indonesia became a full member in 2025; double-check the exact summit theme wording against the official source, as this affects whether III should also be included.
Q58Open question
Consider the following statements about Lokpal: I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India. II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson. III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be. IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. III only
2. II and III
3. I and IV
4. None of the above statements is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) III only
Explanation
The minimum age requirement (45 years) is correct; Lokpal's jurisdiction can extend outside India in certain cases (I false), the Chairperson need not be the CJI specifically—any eminent jurist/former SC judge qualifies (II false), and Lokpal can inquire into the PM subject to specific safeguards, not a blanket bar (IV false).
Q59Open question
Consider the following statements in respect of the first Kho Kho World Cup: I. The event was held in Delhi, India. II. Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category. III. Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) I only
Explanation
The event was held in New Delhi; verify the exact final scores as the men's and women's scores may be transposed from the actual results.
Q60Open question
Consider the following statements: I. In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Ian Nepomniachtchi. II. Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) II only
Explanation
Gukesh won the World Chess Championship 2024 by defeating Ding Liren, not the Olympiad by defeating Nepomniachtchi, so I is incorrect; Abhimanyu Mishra is indeed the youngest-ever Grandmaster.
Q61Open question
Consider the following statements: Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors. Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
Explanation
Their phosphorescent properties are exactly why certain rare earth elements are used in display screens.
Q62Open question
Consider the following statements: I. Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2028. II. 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany. III. 'Kavach' system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section. Which of the statements given above are not correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) I and II only
Explanation
The National Rail Plan targets 2030, not 2028, and Kavach was developed indigenously in India, not with Germany; the RFID tags statement is accurate.
Q63Open question
Consider the following space missions: I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Axiom-4 and Gaganyaan involve microgravity research; SpaDeX is primarily a docking-technology demonstration.
Q64Open question
With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs: Aircraft type — Description I. Dornier-228 — Maritime patrol aircraft II. IL-76 — Supersonic combat aircraft III. C-17 Globemaster III — Military transport aircraft How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
Dornier-228 (maritime patrol) and C-17 Globemaster III (military transport) are correctly matched; IL-76 is a heavy transport aircraft, not a supersonic combat aircraft.
Q65Open question
Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of
1. silver iodide and potassium iodide
2. silver nitrate and potassium iodide
3. silver iodide and potassium nitrate
4. silver nitrate and potassium chloride
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) silver iodide and potassium iodide
Explanation
Cloud seeding commonly uses silver iodide and potassium iodide.
Q66Open question
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India: I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review. II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) I only
Explanation
Judicial review of the pardoning power is limited but possible; the President must act on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, so II is false.
Q67Open question
Consider the following statements: I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution. II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately. III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) I and III only
Explanation
Statements I and III are constitutionally accurate; there is no constitutional requirement that the Speaker resign from their party.
Q68Open question
Consider the following statements: I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. II. There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) Neither I nor II
Explanation
Under the Tenth Schedule, disqualification questions are decided per the opinion of the Election Commission, not the Council of Ministers; and 'political party' is explicitly mentioned in the Tenth Schedule itself.
Q69Open question
Statement I: In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories. Statement II: In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Explanation
States do have rule-making power over minor mineral concessions under the MMDR Act; the Centre has the power to notify/declare which minerals are 'minor minerals'.
Q70Open question
Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?
1. The European Union
2. The World Bank
3. The Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
4. The Food and Agriculture Organization
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) The European Union
Explanation
The Nature Restoration Law was enacted by the European Union.
Q71Open question
Suppose the revenue expenditure is ₹80,000 crores and the revenue receipts of the Government are ₹60,000 crores. The Government budget also shows borrowings of ₹10,000 crores and interest payments of ₹6,000 crores. Which of the following statements are correct? I. Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores. II. Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores. III. Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) I, II and III
Explanation
Revenue deficit = 80,000-60,000 = 20,000; Fiscal deficit = borrowings = 10,000; Primary deficit = fiscal deficit - interest payments = 10,000-6,000 = 4,000.
Q72Open question
India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect
1. India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
2. India to Central Asia via China
3. India to South-East Asia through Bangladesh and Myanmar
4. India to Europe through Azerbaijan
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran
Explanation
INSTC connects India to Central Asia and onward to Europe via Iran and Russia.
Q73Open question
Statement I: Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter. Statement II: Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
Explanation
The USA, not Brazil, is the world's largest ethanol producer, so Statement I is incorrect; the feedstock description in Statement II is accurate.
Q74Open question
The World Bank warned that India could become one of the first places where wet-bulb temperatures routinely exceed 35°C. Which of the following statement(s) best reflect(s) the implication of the above-said report? I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts. II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) II only
Explanation
A wet-bulb temperature above 35°C directly impairs the body's ability to cool itself through sweating, which is the key implication highlighted by the report.
Q75Open question
A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?
1. ₹48,500 crores
2. ₹51,500 crores
3. ₹58,500 crores
4. None of the above
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) ₹48,500 crores
Explanation
Gross primary deficit = Fiscal deficit − Interest payments = 50,000 − 1,500 = ₹48,500 crores.
Q76Open question
Which of the following statements with regard to recommendations of the 15th Finance Commission of India are correct? I. It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes. II. 45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States. III. ₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms. IV. It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance. Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. I, II and III
2. I, II and IV
3. I, III and IV
4. II, III and IV
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) I, III and IV
Explanation
The 15th Finance Commission recommended a devolution share of 41% (not 45%), so II is incorrect; the education grants, agricultural reform incentive, and reintroduction of tax effort criteria are correct — verify the exact agricultural incentive figure against the official report.
Q77Open question
Consider the following statements in respect of the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD): I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries. II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty. III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) I and III only
Explanation
IBRD lends to middle-income countries and was originally established for European post-war reconstruction; it works alongside other institutions, not single-handedly, so II is false.
Q78Open question
Consider the following statements in respect of RTGS and NEFT: I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments. II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for inward transactions while that is not the case for NEFT. III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. I and II
3. I and III
4. III only
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) I only
Explanation
RTGS settles instantaneously while NEFT settles in batches; banks generally do not charge for inward transactions in either system, and both now operate 24x7.
Q79Open question
Consider the following countries: I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?
1. Only two
2. Only three
3. Only four
4. All the five
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Only three
Explanation
UPI-based international merchant payments have been extended to countries such as UAE, France and Singapore; verify the current list as coverage keeps expanding.
Q80Open question
Consider the following statements about 'PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana': I. It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector. II. The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels. III. It aims to create more than three lakh skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. I and III only
3. II and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) I, II and III
Explanation
All three statements correctly describe the scheme's targets and skilling components.
Q81Open question
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) I and III only
Explanation
An Ordinance has the same force as an Act (I) and can be retrospective (III); like any law, however, it cannot violate Fundamental Rights, so II is incorrect.
Q82Open question
Consider the following pairs: State — Description I. Arunachal Pradesh — The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks II. Nagaland — The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act III. Tripura — Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) All the three
Explanation
All three descriptions correctly match the respective states' history.
Q83Open question
With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) Only one
Explanation
The Inter-State Council is provided for under Article 263 of the Constitution; the National Security Council and Zonal Councils are non-constitutional (statutory/executive) bodies.
Q84Open question
Consider the following statements: I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion. II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) I only
Explanation
Article 163(2) explicitly provides for Governor's discretion; the President can only act on bills reserved and forwarded by the Governor, so II is incorrect.
Q85Open question
Consider the following pairs: Provision in the Constitution of India — Stated under I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State — The Directive Principles of the State Policy II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture — The Fundamental Duties III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories — The Fundamental Rights How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) All the three
Explanation
Separation of judiciary is under DPSP (Art 50), preserving composite culture is a Fundamental Duty (Art 51A), and prohibition of child labour in factories below age 14 is a Fundamental Right (Art 24).
Q86Open question
Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule, I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) Neither I nor II
Explanation
Declaring an area a Scheduled Area gives the Governor special responsibilities and rule-making power under the Fifth Schedule; it does not strip the State of executive power nor empower the Union to take over administration on the Governor's recommendation.
Q87Open question
With reference to India, consider the following pairs: Organization — Union Ministry I. The National Automotive Board — Ministry of Commerce and Industry II. The Coir Board — Ministry of Heavy Industries III. The National Centre for Trade Information — Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) None
Explanation
The National Automotive Board functions under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, the Coir Board under the Ministry of MSME, and the National Centre for Trade Information under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry — all three pairings as given are mismatched.
Q88Open question
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I—Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor's office How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) All the three
Explanation
All three are provided for directly in the Constitution (Seventh Schedule, Article 162, and Article 158 respectively).
Q89Open question
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. I and II only
2. II and III only
3. I and III only
4. I, II and III
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) I, II and III
Explanation
All three statements correctly reflect the immunities granted under Articles 361 and 194 of the Constitution.
Q90Open question
Consider the following activities: I. Production of crude oil II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products IV. Production of natural gas How many of the above activities are regulated by the Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board in our country?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All the four
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Only two
Explanation
PNGRB regulates downstream activities like refining/storage/distribution and marketing/sale of petroleum products; upstream production of crude oil and natural gas falls outside its regulatory ambit.
Q91Open question
"Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of
1. the Champaran Satyagraha
2. publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
3. attending the Second Round Table Conference in London
4. the launch of the Quit India Movement
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) publicly violating Salt Law at Dandi
Explanation
This attribution is uncertain — the quote is most commonly associated with Gandhi's 1922 Great Trial statement; none of the given options matches that context precisely, so verify this against the source material.
Q92Open question
The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of
1. carnelian
2. clay
3. bronze
4. gold
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) bronze
Explanation
The Dancing Girl figurine is a bronze sculpture.
Q93Open question
Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?
1. C. R. Das
2. Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
3. Dr. Saifuddin Kitchlew and Khwaja Hasan Nizami
4. M. A. Jinnah
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Madan Mohan Malaviya and Krishna Kant
Explanation
Madan Mohan Malaviya is generally credited with providing legal defence in the Chauri Chaura case — verify this against a primary/authoritative source given the unusual second name listed.
Q94Open question
Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme?
1. The Poona Pact
2. The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact)
3. Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement
4. Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) The Poona Pact
Explanation
The Poona Pact (1932) marked Gandhi's decisive turn toward the Harijan upliftment programme.
Q95Open question
Consider the following fruits: I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) All the three
Explanation
Papaya, pineapple and guava were all introduced to India by the Portuguese from the New World.
Q96Open question
Consider the following countries: I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?
1. All the five
2. Only four
3. Only three
4. Only two
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (B) Only four
Explanation
Counting overseas territories, the UK, Denmark, New Zealand and Australia each span more than four time zones; Brazil has exactly four.
Q97Open question
Consider the following statements: I. Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days. II. When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. I only
2. II only
3. Both I and II
4. Neither I nor II
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) I only
Explanation
Anadyr and Nome sit on opposite sides of the International Date Line, so they are on different calendar days; since Russia is ahead and Alaska behind the line, when it is Monday in Anadyr it would be Sunday, not Tuesday, in Nome.
Q98Open question
Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?
1. Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
2. Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
3. Bhaskarrao Jadhav
4. Dinkarrao Javalkar
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (A) Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker
Explanation
Periyar E. V. Ramaswamy Naicker founded the Self-Respect Movement.
Q99Open question
Consider the following pairs: Country — Resource-rich in I. Botswana — Diamond II. Chile — Lithium III. Indonesia — Nickel In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (C) All the three
Explanation
Botswana is famed for diamonds, Chile for lithium reserves, and Indonesia for nickel — all correctly matched.
Q100Open question
Consider the following pairs: Region — Country I. Mallorca — Italy II. Normandy — Spain III. Sardinia — France In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?
1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All the three
4. None
Show answer & explanation
Answer: (D) None
Explanation
Mallorca is in Spain, Normandy is in France, and Sardinia is in Italy — all three pairs as given are mismatched.

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Civil Services Examination Prelims 2025: questions with answers

Consider the following types of vehicles: I. Full battery electric vehicles II. Hydrogen fuel cell vehicles III. Fuel cell electric hybrid vehicles How many of the above are considered as alternative powertrain vehicles?

In the context of electric vehicle batteries, consider the following elements: I. Cobalt II. Graphite III. Lithium IV. Nickel How many of the above usually make up battery cathodes?

Consider the following: I. Cigarette butts II. Eyeglass lenses III. Car tyres How many of them contain plastic?

Consider the following substances: I. Ethanol II. Nitroglycerine III. Urea Coal gasification technology can be used in the production of how many of them?

What is the common characteristic of the chemical substances generally known as CL-20, HMX and LLM-105, which are sometimes talked about in media?

Consider the following statements: I. It is expected that Majorana 1 chip will enable quantum computing. II. Majorana 1 chip has been introduced by Amazon Web Services (AWS). III. Deep learning is a subset of machine learning. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements: I. No virus can survive in ocean waters. II. No virus can infect bacteria. III. No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Which one of the following launched the 'Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific'?

Regarding Peacock tarantula (Gooty tarantula), consider the following statements: I. It is an omnivorous crustacean. II. Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas. III. In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following pairs: Plant — Description I. Cassava — Woody shrub II. Ginger — Herb with pseudostem III. Malabar spinach — Herbaceous climber IV. Mint — Annual shrub V. Papaya — Woody shrub How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

The irrigation device called 'Araghatta' was

Who among the following rulers in ancient India had assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitta' and 'Gunabhara'?

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of

Who among the following led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya, the powerful maritime State, which ruled the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java and the neighbouring islands?

With reference to ancient India (600-322 BC), consider the following pairs: Territorial region — River flowing in the region I. Asmaka — Godavari II. Kamboja — Vipas III. Avanti — Mahanadi IV. Kosala — Sarayu How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya, a music training school, was set up in 1901 by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in

Ashokan inscriptions suggest that the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the

With reference to investments, consider the following: I. Bonds II. Hedge Funds III. Stocks IV. Venture Capital How many of the above are treated as Alternative Investment Funds?

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases. Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs. Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following countries: I. Austria II. Bulgaria III. Croatia IV. Serbia V. Sweden VI. North Macedonia How many of the above are members of the North Atlantic Treaty Organization?

Consider the following countries: I. Bolivia II. Brazil III. Colombia IV. Ecuador V. Paraguay VI. Venezuela Andes mountains pass through how many of the above countries?

Consider the following water bodies: I. Lake Tanganyika II. Lake Tonle Sap III. Patos Lagoon Through how many of them does the equator pass?

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions. Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less dry winds. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Who amongst the following are members of the Jury to select the recipient of 'Gandhi Peace Prize'? I. The President of India II. The Prime Minister of India III. The Chief Justice of India IV. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Consider the following statements: Statement I: Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors. Statement II: Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following space missions: I. Axiom-4 II. SpaDeX III. Gaganyaan How many of the space missions given above encourage and support microgravity research?

With reference to India's defence, consider the following pairs: Aircraft type — Description I. Dornier-228 — Maritime patrol aircraft II. IL-76 — Supersonic combat aircraft III. C-17 Globemaster III — Military transport aircraft How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution makes use of

Which organization has enacted the Nature Restoration Law (NRL) to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss?

India is one of the founding members of the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), a multimodal transportation corridor, which will connect

A country's fiscal deficit stands at ₹50,000 crores. It is receiving ₹10,000 crores through non-debt creating capital receipts. The country's interest liabilities are ₹1,500 crores. What is the gross primary deficit?

Consider the following countries: I. United Arab Emirates II. France III. Germany IV. Singapore V. Bangladesh How many countries amongst the above are there other than India where international merchant payments are accepted under UPI?

With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements: I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act. II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right. III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date. Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to India, consider the following: I. The Inter-State Council II. The National Security Council III. Zonal Councils How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: I. List I—Union List, in the Seventh Schedule II. Extent of the executive power of a State III. Conditions of the Governor's office How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?

"Sedition has become my religion" was the famous statement given by Gandhiji at the time of

The famous female figurine known as 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of

Who provided legal defence to the people arrested in the aftermath of Chauri Chaura incident?

Subsequent to which one of the following events, Gandhiji, who consistently opposed untouchability and appealed for its eradication from all spheres, decided to include the upliftment of 'Harijans' in his political and social programme?

Consider the following fruits: I. Papaya II. Pineapple III. Guava How many of the above were introduced in India by the Portuguese in the sixteenth and seventeenth centuries?

Consider the following countries: I. United Kingdom II. Denmark III. New Zealand IV. Australia V. Brazil How many of the above countries have more than four time zones?

Who among the following was the founder of the 'Self-Respect Movement'?

Consider the following pairs: Country — Resource-rich in I. Botswana — Diamond II. Chile — Lithium III. Indonesia — Nickel In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

Consider the following pairs: Region — Country I. Mallorca — Italy II. Normandy — Spain III. Sardinia — France In how many of the above rows is the given information correctly matched?

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