1. Q1Open question

    In the following question, out of four words given below, three are alike in some manner and the fourth word is different. Find the different one.

    1. MICROSCOPE
    2. TELESCOPE
    3. STETHOSCOPE
    4. PERISCOPE
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) STETHOSCOPE

    Explanation

    Microscope, telescope and periscope are optical instruments for seeing; the stethoscope is for hearing.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: a microscope is an instrument for seeing (magnifying small objects).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a telescope is an instrument for seeing distant objects.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: a stethoscope is used for hearing body sounds; the other three are used for seeing.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a periscope is an instrument for seeing over or around obstacles.

  2. Q2Open question

    SPRING is written in a code as UNUFRC. How will the word MOBILE be written in that code language?

    1. OMEFPA
    2. OMPGNC
    3. MPQSUL
    4. SEGRFT
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) OMEFPA

    Explanation

    S(+2)=U, P(−2)=N, R(+3)=U, I(−3)=F, N(+4)=R, G(−4)=C. Applying the same shifts to MOBILE gives OMEFPA.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the pattern is +2, −2, +3, −3, +4, −4: M→O, O→M, B→E, I→F, L→P, E→A.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: only the first two letters fit; B+3 gives E, not P.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: M should shift +2 to O, so the code cannot start with M.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: does not follow the +2, −2, +3, −3, +4, −4 pattern at all.

  3. Q3Open question

    Mukesh said to his friend, "Rita is the mother of my son's wife's daughter." How is Mukesh related to Rita?

    1. Father
    2. Son-in-law
    3. Son
    4. Father-in-law
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Father-in-law

    Explanation

    The mother of the son's wife's daughter is the son's wife, i.e. Mukesh's daughter-in-law. So Mukesh is Rita's father-in-law.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Rita is Mukesh's son's wife, not his daughter.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a son-in-law is a daughter's husband; Mukesh is a generation above Rita.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Mukesh is a generation above Rita, not below.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the mother of his son's wife's daughter is the son's wife herself, so Mukesh is her father-in-law.

  4. Q4Open question

    Ram goes North, turns right, then turns right again and then turns left. In which direction is Ram now?

    1. EAST
    2. SOUTH
    3. NORTH
    4. WEST
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) EAST

    Explanation

    Facing North, right → East, right → South, left → East.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: North → right = East → right = South → left = East.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Ram faced South after the second right turn, but the final left turn takes him East.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: North was only the starting direction.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a left turn from South leads East, not West.

  5. Q5Open question

    Writing in alphabetical order, which of the following names will appear last?

    1. Mahinder
    2. Mohinder
    3. Mohender
    4. Mahendra
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Mohinder

    Explanation

    Order: Mahendra, Mahinder, Mohender, Mohinder.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: names starting 'Ma' come before those starting 'Mo'.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: 'Mohi' comes after 'Mohe' because I follows E, so Mohinder is last.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 'Mohe' comes before 'Mohi'.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 'Ma' names come before 'Mo' names.

  6. Q6Open question

    Nitin is 7 ranks ahead of Joginder in a class of 39. If Joginder's rank is 17th from the last, what is Nitin's rank from the beginning?

    1. 17th
    2. 15th
    3. 18th
    4. 16th
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 16th

    Explanation

    Rank from top = total − rank from bottom + 1 = 23 for Joginder; Nitin is 7 ahead, so 16th.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: this ignores that Joginder is 23rd from the top.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: this places Nitin 8 ranks ahead, not 7.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: this does not match 23 − 7.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Joginder from the top = 39 − 17 + 1 = 23; Nitin = 23 − 7 = 16th.

  7. Q7Open question

    If + means ×, × means −, ÷ means + and − means ÷, then 175 − 25 ÷ 5 + 20 × 3 + 10 equals:

    1. 77
    2. 87
    3. 140
    4. 70
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 77

    Explanation

    Replace the signs: 175 ÷ 25 + 5 × 20 − 3 × 10 = 7 + 100 − 30 = 77.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: converted expression is 175 ÷ 25 + 5 × 20 − 3 × 10 = 7 + 100 − 30 = 77.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: this comes from an arithmetic slip; the correct value is 77.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: this ignores the BODMAS order after substitution.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: this drops one of the terms; the correct value is 77.

  8. Q8Open question

    Rahul is 3 times as old as Seema. Laxmi was twice as old as Rahul four years ago. In four years' time, Rahul will be 31. What are the present ages of Seema and Laxmi?

    1. 10, 50
    2. 9, 52
    3. 9, 45
    4. 9, 50
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 9, 50

    Explanation

    Rahul now = 31 − 4 = 27, Seema = 9. Four years ago Rahul = 23, so Laxmi was 46 and is 50 now.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Seema is 27 ÷ 3 = 9, not 10.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Laxmi is 46 + 4 = 50, not 52.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Laxmi was 46 four years ago, so she is 50 now.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Rahul is 27 now, Seema 9; four years ago Rahul was 23, Laxmi 46, so Laxmi is 50 now.

  9. Q9Open question

    Find the missing number from the given alternatives: 28 20 7 84 ? 12 45 25 9

    1. 30
    2. 35
    3. 20
    4. 25
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 35

    Explanation

    In each row, first number × 5 = second × third (28×5 = 20×7 = 140; 45×5 = 25×9 = 225). So ? = 84×5 ÷ 12 = 35.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: 30 × 12 = 360, but 84 × 5 = 420.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: pattern: first × 5 = middle × third; 84 × 5 = 420 = 35 × 12.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 20 × 12 = 240, not 420.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 25 × 12 = 300, not 420.

  10. Q10Open question

    RAIN is written in a code as 8$%6 and MORE is written as 7#8@. How will REMAIN be written in that code language?

    1. @$86%7
    2. %7@%6#
    3. 86@$#7
    4. 8@7$%6
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 8@7$%6

    Explanation

    From the two codes: R=8, A=$, I=%, N=6, M=7, O=#, E=@. So REMAIN = 8@7$%6.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: R should be 8, not @.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: letter order and symbols do not match the given codes.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: E is @, not 6, and N is 6, not 7.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: R=8, E=@, M=7, A=$, I=%, N=6.

  11. Q11Open question

    How many bronze medals were won by Bihar players in the 38th National Junior Athletics Championship 2025?

    1. 4
    2. 5
    3. 6
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 5

    Explanation

    Bihar's tally was 1 gold, 6 silver and 5 bronze medals.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Bihar's bronze tally was 5.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Bihar won 1 gold, 6 silver and 5 bronze, its best-ever showing.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 6 was Bihar's silver count, not bronze.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one figure (5) is correct.

  12. Q12Open question

    Which districts in Bihar will benefit from the Kosi-Mechi Link Project?

    1. Patna, Nalanda, Gaya, Siwan
    2. Darbhanga, Muzaffarpur, Sitamarhi, Begusarai
    3. Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, Katihar
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj, Katihar

    Explanation

    The Kosi-Mechi intra-state link carries surplus Kosi water to the Mahananda basin, benefiting Araria, Purnea, Kishanganj and Katihar.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: these are south/west Bihar districts far from the Kosi-Mechi area.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: these are in north-central Bihar, not the Seemanchal command area.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the link canal irrigates the Mahananda basin in these four Seemanchal districts.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only option C names the benefiting districts.

  13. Q13Open question

    Which Indian languages are accorded the status of Classical Language?

    1. Telugu
    2. Marathi
    3. Bengali
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) More than one of the above

    Explanation

    In October 2024 Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese and Bengali were added, taking the total to 11; Telugu was already on the list.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Telugu has been a classical language since 2008, but it is not the only one listed.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Marathi got the status in October 2024, but it is not the only one listed.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Bengali got the status in October 2024, but it is not the only one listed.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Telugu, Marathi and Bengali all have classical status.

  14. Q14Open question

    Which organisation recognised the Nagi Bird Sanctuary site as an Important Bird and Biodiversity Area (IBA)?

    1. UNESCO
    2. World Wildlife Fund
    3. BirdLife International
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) BirdLife International

    Explanation

    Nagi (Jamui, Bihar) was recognised as an IBA by BirdLife International.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: UNESCO lists World Heritage Sites, not IBAs.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: WWF does not run the IBA programme.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: IBAs are designated by BirdLife International (with BNHS as its Indian partner).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only BirdLife International designates IBAs.

  15. Q15Open question

    Where was the National Panchayati Raj Day 2025 event organised?

    1. Patna
    2. Madhubani
    3. Gaya
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Madhubani

    Explanation

    The national celebration on 24 April 2025 was held in Madhubani district, Bihar.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the national event was not held in Patna.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: PM Modi addressed the event at Jhanjharpur, Madhubani on 24 April 2025.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: the event was not held in Gaya.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: the event had a single venue, Madhubani.

  16. Q16Open question

    What is the primary objective of the Lunar Trailblazer mission?

    1. To detect and map water on the Moon's surface
    2. To create a 3D model of the entire Moon
    3. To test new lunar rovers
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) To detect and map water on the Moon's surface

    Explanation

    Lunar Trailblazer (NASA, launched Feb 2025) was a small satellite meant to map water on the Moon.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: NASA's Lunar Trailblazer was built to map the form, abundance and location of lunar water.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: 3D mapping was not its main goal.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: it was an orbiter, not a rover test.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only option A states its objective.

  17. Q17Open question

    Afrikaners refers to which people?

    1. People of Indo-African descent in the U.S.
    2. Indigenous tribal communities in Africa
    3. The white minority group in South Africa
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) The white minority group in South Africa

    Explanation

    Afrikaners are a white ethnic minority in South Africa descended mainly from Dutch settlers.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Afrikaners are not a U.S. group.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Afrikaners are of European settler descent, not indigenous.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Afrikaners are white South Africans, mainly of Dutch descent, who speak Afrikaans.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only option C is correct.

  18. Q18Open question

    What is the name of the 16th-century stepwell that the Archaeological Survey of India recently conserved in collaboration with the World Monuments Fund India?

    1. Agrasen ki Baoli
    2. Rajon ki Baoli
    3. Chauki Bavdi
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Rajon ki Baoli

    Explanation

    Rajon ki Baoli (Mehrauli, Delhi), built in the early 16th century under the Lodis, was conserved by ASI and WMF India.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Agrasen ki Baoli was not this conservation project.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Rajon ki Baoli in Mehrauli was restored by ASI with WMF India (with TCS Foundation support).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: this was not the stepwell in the project.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only Rajon ki Baoli fits.

  19. Q19Open question

    What is the name of the city mayor who proclaimed April 14, 2025, as Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day in New York City?

    1. Bill de Blasio
    2. Eric Adams
    3. Sadiq Khan
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Eric Adams

    Explanation

    NYC Mayor Eric Adams proclaimed 14 April 2025 as Dr. B. R. Ambedkar Day.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: de Blasio left office in 2021.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Eric Adams was NYC mayor in April 2025 and issued the proclamation.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Sadiq Khan is the Mayor of London.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only Eric Adams made the proclamation.

  20. Q20Open question

    What is the permanent slogan for the Eurovision Song Contest?

    1. Music Unites Us
    2. Together in Song
    3. United By Music
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) United By Music

    Explanation

    The European Broadcasting Union made 'United By Music' Eurovision's permanent slogan.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is not the official slogan.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is not the official slogan.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: 'United By Music', first used in 2023, was adopted as the permanent slogan.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: there is one permanent slogan.

  21. Q21Open question

    What is true of the GSLV-F15 mission by ISRO?

    1. It carried the NVS-02 satellite
    2. It marked ISRO's 101st launch from Sriharikota
    3. It marked ISRO's 100th launch from Sriharikota
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) More than one of the above

    Explanation

    GSLV-F15 (29 Jan 2025) placed the NVS-02 navigation satellite and was ISRO's 100th launch from Sriharikota.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: true, but statement C is also true.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: it was the 100th, not 101st.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: true, but statement A is also true.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: both A and C are true: GSLV-F15 carried NVS-02 and was the 100th launch from Sriharikota.

  22. Q22Open question

    What is true of the 18th G20 Summit?

    1. It was held in Rio de Janeiro
    2. Its theme was: Building a Just World and a Sustainable Planet
    3. The Rio de Janeiro Declaration emphasised the taxation of billionaires
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None of the above

    Explanation

    The 18th G20 Summit was held in New Delhi on 9–10 September 2023 under the theme 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam – One Earth, One Family, One Future'.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Rio hosted the 19th summit (2024); the 18th was in New Delhi (2023).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: this was Brazil's 2024 (19th) theme; the 18th was 'Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam'.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: the Rio Declaration belongs to the 19th summit; the 18th produced the New Delhi Leaders' Declaration.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: all three statements describe the 19th summit, not the 18th.

  23. Q23Open question

    The UN climate conference held in Baku in 2024 concluded with an agreement that:

    1. Aims to ban fossil fuels globally by 2030
    2. Calls on developed countries to provide at least $500 billion annually to developing nations by 2030
    3. Calls on developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Calls on developed countries to provide at least $300 billion annually to developing nations by 2035

    Explanation

    COP29 in Baku agreed the NCQG: developed countries to lead in providing at least $300 billion a year by 2035.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: COP29 set no fossil-fuel ban.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: the figure and year are wrong.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the New Collective Quantified Goal set at least $300 billion a year by 2035.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only option C is correct.

  24. Q24Open question

    Han Kang, awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024 — her novel 'The Vegetarian' won which other prestigious award?

    1. Pulitzer Prize
    2. PEN America Literary Awards
    3. International Booker Prize
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) International Booker Prize

    Explanation

    The Vegetarian (translated by Deborah Smith) won the International Booker Prize in 2016.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the Pulitzer is for American works.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is not the award the novel is known for.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: The Vegetarian won the Man Booker International Prize in 2016.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only option C is correct.

  25. Q25Open question

    Which glacier of Nepal among the following was declared 'dead' in May 2025?

    1. Khumbu Glacier
    2. Yala Glacier
    3. Imja Glacier
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Yala Glacier

    Explanation

    Yala Glacier (Langtang, Nepal) was declared 'dead' in May 2025 after losing most of its mass.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Khumbu (Everest region) is still an active glacier.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Yala Glacier in Langtang was declared dead and a memorial 'funeral' held in May 2025.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Imja is known for its growing glacial lake, not this declaration.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only Yala was declared dead.

  26. Q26Open question

    According to the UNDP Human Development Report 2025, life expectancy in India increased from 58.6 years in 1990 to how many years in 2023?

    1. 72 years
    2. 73 years
    3. 74 years
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 72 years

    Explanation

    HDR 2025 reported India's life expectancy rising from 58.6 years (1990) to 72 years (2023), its highest ever.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: HDR 2025 puts India's 2023 life expectancy at about 72 years.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: the report's figure is 72 years.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: the report's figure is 72 years.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one figure is correct.

  27. Q27Open question

    In which city was the AI Action Summit held in February 2025?

    1. Bengaluru
    2. Paris
    3. Rome
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Paris

    Explanation

    The AI Action Summit took place in Paris on 10–11 February 2025.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: India co-chaired the summit but it was held in France.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the AI Action Summit was held in Paris, co-chaired by France and India.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: it was not held in Rome.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: it had one host city, Paris.

  28. Q28Open question

    At the 96th Academy Awards (2024), Emma Stone won the Oscar for Actress in a Leading Role for her performance in which film?

    1. La La Land
    2. Poor Things
    3. The Favourite
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Poor Things

    Explanation

    Emma Stone won her second Best Actress Oscar in 2024 for Poor Things.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: La La Land won her the 2017 (89th) Oscar.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: she won Best Actress at the 96th Oscars for Poor Things.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: she was nominated (supporting) for this, not winning in 2024.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only Poor Things is correct.

  29. Q29Open question

    Which Gujarati film won the 70th National Film Award for Best Feature Film promoting national, social and environmental values?

    1. Hellaro
    2. Chhello Show
    3. Kutch Express
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Kutch Express

    Explanation

    Kutch Express (Gujarati) won Best Feature Film Promoting National, Social and Environmental Values at the 70th National Film Awards.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Hellaro won Best Feature Film at the 66th awards.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Chhello Show was India's Oscar entry, not this award.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Kutch Express won this category at the 70th National Film Awards.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only Kutch Express won it.

  30. Q30Open question

    Which of the following individuals or organisations was a recipient of the Ramon Magsaysay Award 2024?

    1. Karma Phuntsho
    2. Rural Doctors Movement
    3. Miyazaki Hayao
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) More than one of the above

    Explanation

    The 2024 Ramon Magsaysay awardees included Karma Phuntsho, Miyazaki Hayao, Nguyen Thi Ngoc Phuong, Farwiza Farhan and the Rural Doctors Movement.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: a 2024 awardee (Bhutan), but not the only one listed.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a 2024 awardee (Thailand), but not the only one listed.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a 2024 awardee (Japan), but not the only one listed.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: all three were among the 2024 awardees.

  31. Q31Open question

    Which of the following statements are true about Akashteer?

    1. Akashteer is the core of the Indian Army's Air Defence (AAD) system
    2. It seamlessly integrates into India's larger C4ISR framework
    3. It reflects a strategic shift from passive defence to proactive retaliation
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) More than one of the above

    Explanation

    Akashteer, built by BEL, is the Army's automated air-defence control and reporting system; it was highlighted during Operation Sindoor (2025).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: true, but B and C are also true.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: true, but A and C are also true.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: true, but A and B are also true.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: all three statements are true.

  32. Q32Open question

    Which of the following defence platforms are part of India's growing indigenous military ecosystem supported by the Make in India initiative?

    1. F-35 Lightning II
    2. Main Battle Tank (MBT) Arjun
    3. Advanced Towed Artillery Gun System (ATAGS)
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) More than one of the above

    Explanation

    Arjun MBT and ATAGS are DRDO-developed indigenous systems; the F-35 is foreign.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the F-35 is an American (Lockheed Martin) fighter.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: indigenous (DRDO), but ATAGS is also correct.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: indigenous (DRDO with Indian industry), but Arjun is also correct.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: both Arjun MBT and ATAGS are indigenous platforms.

  33. Q33Open question

    Which day is observed as Holocaust Memorial Day?

    1. January 15
    2. January 27
    3. February 10
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) January 27

    Explanation

    International Holocaust Remembrance Day is 27 January, the anniversary of Auschwitz's liberation.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: January 15 is Indian Army Day.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: 27 January marks the 1945 liberation of Auschwitz-Birkenau.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not associated with Holocaust remembrance.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only 27 January is correct.

  34. Q34Open question

    What is the title of the book by Banu Mushtaq that won the 2025 International Booker Prize?

    1. Light of the Heart
    2. Heart Lamp
    3. Soul Lantern
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Heart Lamp

    Explanation

    Heart Lamp, a Kannada short-story collection, was the first Kannada book to win the International Booker.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the title of the winning book.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Heart Lamp, translated from Kannada by Deepa Bhasthi, won in 2025.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the title of the winning book.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only Heart Lamp is correct.

  35. Q35Open question

    According to the Indus Waters Treaty, the three eastern rivers are allocated to India. Which of the following is NOT one of them?

    1. Jhelum
    2. Ravi
    3. Sutlej
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Jhelum

    Explanation

    Eastern rivers (India): Ravi, Beas, Sutlej. Western rivers (Pakistan): Indus, Jhelum, Chenab.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Jhelum is a western river (with Indus and Chenab), allocated to Pakistan.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Ravi is an eastern river allocated to India.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Sutlej is an eastern river allocated to India.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only Jhelum is not an eastern river.

  36. Q36Open question

    Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about the Capability Poverty Measure (CPM) developed by the UNDP? 1) CPM includes child malnutrition as a proxy for lack of health and nourishment. 2) Female illiteracy is included to reflect deprivation in education and knowledge. 3) It considers male illiteracy as a key indicator of capability poverty. 4) It includes lack of access to clean drinking water as an important indicator of capability poverty. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 1, 2 and 3
    3. Only 1
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2

    Explanation

    UNDP's CPM (HDR 1996) has three indicators: underweight children under 5, births unattended by trained health personnel, and female illiteracy.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: CPM uses underweight children under five and female illiteracy (plus births unattended by trained staff).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: male illiteracy is not a CPM indicator.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is also correct.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only code A matches.

  37. Q37Open question

    Which of the following is NOT among the top ten principal commodities of India's export during April–September 2024-25?

    1. Petroleum Products
    2. Iron and Steel
    3. Basmati Rice
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) More than one of the above

    Explanation

    The top ten included engineering goods, petroleum products, electronics, gems & jewellery, drugs & pharma, chemicals, RMG, rice, plastics and marine products.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: petroleum products are among the top ten.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not in the top ten, but Basmati Rice is also not listed.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not listed separately (only 'Rice' is), but Iron and Steel is also out.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: both Iron and Steel and Basmati Rice are outside the top ten.

  38. Q38Open question

    According to the India State of Forest Report 2023 (ISFR 2023):

    1. The total forest and tree cover of the country is 15% of the geographical area of the country.
    2. The top three states having the largest recorded forest area (RFA) are Jharkhand, Andaman & Nicobar and Manipur.
    3. The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra, followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) The maximum tree cover has been found in the State of Maharashtra, followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

    Explanation

    ISFR 2023: forest + tree cover is 25.17% of India's area; Maharashtra has the most tree cover, followed by Rajasthan and Uttar Pradesh.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: it is about 25.17%, not 15%.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: these are not the top three by RFA.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: ISFR 2023 ranks Maharashtra, Rajasthan and UP top for tree cover.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only statement C is correct.

  39. Q39Open question

    Which of the following countries had a greater share than India in global services exports in 2023?

    1. Russia
    2. Ireland
    3. Indonesia
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Ireland

    Explanation

    India was the 7th largest services exporter in 2023 (~4.3% share); Ireland ranked above it.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Russia's share is well below India's (~4.3%).

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Ireland, a major hub for tech and finance services, had a larger share than India.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Indonesia's share is far below India's.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only Ireland exceeded India.

  40. Q40Open question

    Which of the following statement/s is/are NOT CORRECT about the U-WIN portal of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare?

    1. It provides QR-based e-vaccination certificates
    2. It facilitates the creation of Ayushman Bharat Health Accounts (ABHA) for parents and children
    3. The portal is accessible in 11 regional languages
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None of the above

    Explanation

    U-WIN digitises routine immunisation for pregnant women and children: QR-based certificates, ABHA creation and 11-language access.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is a correct feature of U-WIN.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is a correct feature of U-WIN.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is a correct feature of U-WIN.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: all three statements are correct, so none is 'not correct'.

  41. Q41Open question

    Which organisation jointly developed the National Urban Innovation Stack (NUIS) Digital Blueprint with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs (MoHUA)?

    1. Ministry of Electronics and IT
    2. National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)
    3. NITI Aayog
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA)

    Explanation

    The NUIS digital blueprint was prepared by MoHUA together with the National Institute of Urban Affairs.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: MeitY partners on the Urban Digital Mission, not this blueprint.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: NIUA, MoHUA's think tank, co-developed the NUIS blueprint.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: NITI Aayog did not co-develop it.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only NIUA is correct.

  42. Q42Open question

    Which state had the highest constructed road length under Bharatmala Pariyojana as of 31 October 2024?

    1. Rajasthan
    2. Uttar Pradesh
    3. Maharashtra
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Rajasthan

    Explanation

    As per MoRTH data up to 31 Oct 2024, Rajasthan had the highest completed length under Bharatmala.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Rajasthan led, helped by long stretches of the Delhi–Mumbai Expressway and Amritsar–Jamnagar corridor.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: UP was behind Rajasthan.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Maharashtra was behind Rajasthan.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only Rajasthan topped the list.

  43. Q43Open question

    Before the launch of the Kisan Rin Portal (KRP), claims under the Interest Subvention and Prompt Repayment Incentive schemes were submitted manually to which institution/s?

    1. Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare and NABARD
    2. Reserve Bank of India and NABARD
    3. National Payments Corporation of India and Reserve Bank of India
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Reserve Bank of India and NABARD

    Explanation

    Under the Modified Interest Subvention Scheme, claims were earlier processed manually by RBI and NABARD; KRP (2023) digitised this.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the ministry funds the scheme but claims went through RBI and NABARD.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: banks submitted claims to RBI (commercial banks) and NABARD (RRBs/co-op banks).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: NPCI had no role in these claims.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only option B is correct.

  44. Q44Open question

    India's foreign exchange reserves:

    1. Increased to around USD 640 billion as of the end of December 2024
    2. Are the seventh largest in the world
    3. Decreased due to a BoP deficit of around USD 24 billion in 2024
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Increased to around USD 640 billion as of the end of December 2024

    Explanation

    India's reserves were about $640 billion at end-December 2024, among the four largest in the world.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: reserves stood at about $640 billion at end-December 2024.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: India ranks about fourth, not seventh.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is not supported by the data for 2024.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only statement A is correct.

  45. Q45Open question

    As per NFHS-5 data, which of the following state(s) recorded less than 6% of the population as multidimensionally poor in 2019-20?

    1. Jammu and Kashmir
    2. Himachal Pradesh
    3. Uttar Pradesh
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) More than one of the above

    Explanation

    NITI Aayog's MPI (NFHS-5) shows J&K and Himachal Pradesh under 6%, while UP was over 20%.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: about 4.8%, below 6%, but Himachal also qualifies.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: about 4.9%, below 6%, but J&K also qualifies.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: UP's share was about 23%, far above 6%.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: both J&K and Himachal Pradesh were below 6%.

  46. Q46Open question

    Match List-I with List-II: List-I: a) Perform, Achieve and Trade (PAT) scheme; b) Mangrove Initiative for Shoreline Habitats & Tangible Incomes (MISHTI); c) Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) initiative; d) National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) List-II: 1) Introduced in the Union Budget for 2023-24; 2) Aims to reduce emissions in energy-intensive industries; 3) Launched in 2019 as a national-level strategy; 4) Launched at COP26 in Glasgow in November 2021

    1. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
    2. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
    3. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

    Explanation

    PAT (BEE) cuts energy use in energy-intensive industries; MISHTI was announced in Budget 2023-24; LiFE was announced by PM Modi at COP26; NCAP began in 2019.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: PAT targets industrial energy efficiency (2), not the 2023-24 budget.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: NCAP was launched in 2019 (3), not 2.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: PAT–industry emissions, MISHTI–Budget 2023-24, LiFE–COP26, NCAP–2019.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only code C matches.

  47. Q47Open question

    According to the Annual PLFS 2023-24 report:

    1. There is a greater increase in the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of rural females as compared to urban females since 2021-22
    2. Among the 36 states and union territories, 90% have a Workforce Participation Rate (WPR) (all ages) below the national average of 43.7 percent
    3. The share of female workers in agriculture has decreased significantly from 2017-18 to 2023-24
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) There is a greater increase in the Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) of rural females as compared to urban females since 2021-22

    Explanation

    PLFS 2023-24 shows rising female LFPR driven mainly by rural women, many of whom joined agriculture.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: rural female LFPR has risen much faster than urban female LFPR.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: far fewer than 90% of states/UTs are below the national average.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: the share actually increased (about 57% to 64%).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only statement A is correct.

  48. Q48Open question

    Which of the following was NOT an outcome of the Science, Technology and Innovation Policy 2020?

    1. One Nation, One Subscription
    2. Research and Innovation Excellence Frameworks (RIEF)
    3. Atal Innovation Mission
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Atal Innovation Mission

    Explanation

    STIP 2020 proposed One Nation One Subscription and RIEF; the Atal Innovation Mission predates it (2016).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: this was proposed in the STIP 2020 draft.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: RIEF was proposed in STIP 2020.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: AIM was set up by NITI Aayog in 2016, before STIP 2020.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only AIM is not an outcome.

  49. Q49Open question

    The share of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises in the country's Gross Value Added (GVA) has increased from ____ in 2020-21 to ____ in 2022-23.

    1. 30.3%, 35.6%
    2. 27.3%, 30.1%
    3. 35.1%, 38.2%
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 27.3%, 30.1%

    Explanation

    Per official MSME data, the sector's GVA share rose from 27.3% to 30.1% between 2020-21 and 2022-23.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: these figures are too high.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: MSME share in GVA rose from 27.3% (2020-21) to 30.1% (2022-23).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: these figures are too high.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only option B is correct.

  50. Q50Open question

    Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the Indian cement industry? 1) Around 87% of India's cement industry is concentrated in a few major states like Rajasthan, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. 2) India is the largest producer of cement in the world. 3) Most cement plants in India are located far from raw material sources and near ports to support exports. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. 1
    2. 2
    3. 1 and 3
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1

    Explanation

    Cement is a weight-losing industry, so plants sit near limestone; India ranks second after China in output.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the industry is concentrated in limestone-rich states; 2 and 3 are false.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: India is the second-largest producer; China is first.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: plants are sited near limestone deposits, not ports.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only code A is correct.

  51. Q51Open question

    What is the primary objective of Bihar's Mission Daksh?

    1. To increase school enrolment in primary schools in rural areas
    2. To provide vocational training to teachers at senior-secondary level
    3. To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) To offer personalised mentoring for lagging students to reach grade-level competencies

    Explanation

    Mission Daksh (Bihar Education Dept.) gives remedial, personalised support to lagging students in government schools.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Daksh targets learning gaps, not enrolment.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: it is aimed at students, not teacher training.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: teachers mentor small groups of weak students to bring them up to grade level.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only option C states its objective.

  52. Q52Open question

    Which of the following is NOT one of the components under the YUVA framework of the Bihar Startup Policy 2022?

    1. Vibrancy in the education system
    2. Regulatory enablers for support
    3. International market expansion schemes
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) International market expansion schemes

    Explanation

    YUVA covers youth/education vibrancy, regulatory enablers, venture support and acceleration; international market schemes are not part of it.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is part of the YUVA framework.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is part of the YUVA framework.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: international market expansion is not a YUVA component.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only option C is outside YUVA.

  53. Q53Open question

    Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about Bihar's economic performance in 2023-24?

    1. Bihar's per capita GSDP at current prices increased by 12.8% in 2023-24 over the previous year
    2. The estimated share of the tertiary sector in Bihar's GSVA (constant prices) in 2023-24 was 58.6%
    3. Gross Fixed Capital Formation (GFCF) formed 4.6% of GSDP at current prices in 2023-24
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) More than one of the above

    Explanation

    Bihar Economic Survey 2024-25: per capita GSDP (current) rose 12.8% and the tertiary sector was about 58.6% of GSVA.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: true, but B is also true.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: true, but A is also true.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 4.6% matches the state's capital-outlay ratio, not total GFCF.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: statements A and B are both correct.

  54. Q54Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1) The proportion of the young population (0–19 years) in Bihar is projected to decline significantly by 2041. 2) Bihar's demographic dividend is expected to peak around 2041. 3) The elderly population (60+ years) in Bihar is expected to rise more sharply than in India. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

    1. 1 and 2 are correct
    2. 1 and 3 are correct
    3. 2 and 3 are correct
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 are correct

    Explanation

    Bihar's high fertility means its population ages later and more slowly than India's, with its dividend peaking around 2041.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the young share falls and the working-age share peaks around 2041.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Bihar ages more slowly than India, so 3 is false.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 3 is false.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only code A is correct.

  55. Q55Open question

    According to PLFS 2023-24, which of the following statements best describes the nature of employment among women in Bihar?

    1. Most women are employed in formal, regular wage jobs
    2. The majority of women are self-employed, often serving as helpers in household enterprises
    3. The majority of women were engaged in the secondary sector
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) The majority of women are self-employed, often serving as helpers in household enterprises

    Explanation

    Female employment in Bihar is dominated by self-employment, especially as helpers in household enterprises and farms.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: regular wage work is a small share for women in Bihar.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: most working women in Bihar are self-employed, largely as unpaid household helpers.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: most women work in agriculture (primary sector).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only option B is correct.

  56. Q56Open question

    The power to recruit the secretarial staff of the House of the People is vested in:

    1. Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
    2. Union Public Service Commission
    3. Staff Selection Commission
    4. President after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the People
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) President after consultation with the Speaker of the House of the People

    Explanation

    Article 98 lets Parliament regulate its secretarial staff; pending such law, the President makes rules after consulting the Speaker.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the executive does not recruit Parliament's staff.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: UPSC does not recruit Lok Sabha Secretariat staff.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: SSC recruits for government departments, not Parliament.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Article 98(3): until Parliament legislates, the President may make rules after consulting the Speaker.

  57. Q57Open question

    The Attorney General of India:

    1. Is not entitled to audience in any court except the Supreme Court
    2. Gives advice to the President on legal matters
    3. Cannot participate in the proceedings of the Houses of Parliament
    4. Is a whole-time counsel for the government
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Gives advice to the President on legal matters

    Explanation

    The AG (Article 76) is India's highest law officer, advising the government and appearing for it.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: under Article 76(3) he has right of audience in all courts in India.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Article 76(2): he advises the Government of India on legal matters referred by the President.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Article 88 lets him speak and take part, though not vote.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: he is not a full-time government counsel and may do private practice (with limits).

  58. Q58Open question

    Consider the following subjects belonging to different lists of the Constitution of India. Which of these belong to the Concurrent List? 1) Protection of wildlife 2) Tax on agricultural income 3) Tax on consumption or sale of electricity 4) Price control

    1. 1 and 4 are correct
    2. 2 and 3 are correct
    3. Only 4 is correct
    4. Only 2 is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 4 are correct

    Explanation

    Wildlife protection moved to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment (1976); price control is Concurrent Entry 34.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: wildlife protection (Entry 17B) and price control (Entry 34) are Concurrent List items.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: both are State List taxes (Entries 46 and 53).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: wildlife protection is also concurrent.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: agricultural income tax is a State subject.

  59. Q59Open question

    Which of the following Directive Principles do NOT follow Gandhian principles? 1) Organisation of village panchayats 2) Uniform Civil Code 3) Promotion of cottage industries in rural areas 4) Right to work

    1. 1 and 2
    2. Only 2
    3. 2 and 4
    4. 1 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 2 and 4

    Explanation

    Gandhian DPSPs include village panchayats (40) and cottage industries (43); UCC (44) and right to work (41) are not Gandhian.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: village panchayats (Art. 40) are Gandhian.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: right to work (Art. 41) is also non-Gandhian.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: UCC (Art. 44) is liberal-intellectual; right to work (Art. 41) is socialistic.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: these two are the Gandhian ones.

  60. Q60Open question

    Which pair is NOT correctly matched?

    1. Allocation of seats in the Council of States – 4th Schedule
    2. Forms of oath – 3rd Schedule
    3. Administration of Scheduled Areas – 6th Schedule
    4. Union List – 7th Schedule
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Administration of Scheduled Areas – 6th Schedule

    Explanation

    The 5th Schedule deals with Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes; the 6th with tribal areas in four NE states.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: correctly matched.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: correctly matched.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Scheduled Areas are under the 5th Schedule; the 6th covers tribal areas of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: correctly matched.

  61. Q61Open question

    Consider the following statements about the Central Government: 1) Ministries and Departments are formed by the Prime Minister in consultation with the Cabinet Secretary. 2) Every Minister is allocated a Ministry by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister. Of these:

    1. Only 1 is correct
    2. Only 2 is correct
    3. 1 and 2 are correct
    4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only 2 is correct

    Explanation

    Under Article 77(3) and the Allocation of Business Rules, the President allocates portfolios on the PM's advice.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: ministries are created by the President under the Allocation of Business Rules, not by the PM with the Cabinet Secretary.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: business is allocated among ministers by the President on the PM's advice (Art. 77(3)).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is incorrect.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is correct.

  62. Q62Open question

    What is true about the proceedings of the State Legislature?

    1. Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in the official language(s) of the State or in Hindi or in English
    2. The Advocate General has the right to vote
    3. It can discuss the conduct of any judge of the High Court also
    4. Validity of proceedings can be called in question on the ground of any alleged irregularity
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Business in the legislature shall be transacted only in the official language(s) of the State or in Hindi or in English

    Explanation

    Article 210: business is conducted in the State's official language(s), Hindi or English (with the Speaker's leave for mother tongue).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: this is Article 210(1).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: the Advocate General may speak (Art. 177) but cannot vote.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Article 211 bars such discussion.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Article 212 says courts cannot question proceedings for procedural irregularity.

  63. Q63Open question

    The Constitution of India provides for reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights, but reasonableness must keep in mind that: 1) The interest of the general public is safeguarded 2) Prevailing social values and social needs are not ignored 3) Directive Principles can be bypassed 4) Collective good is not greater Of these:

    1. 1 and 2 are correct
    2. 2 and 3 are correct
    3. Only 4 is correct
    4. Only 1 is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 2 are correct

    Explanation

    Reasonableness balances individual rights against public interest and social needs, in harmony with DPSPs (e.g. State of Madras v. V.G. Row).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: courts weigh public interest and prevailing social values/needs when judging reasonableness.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: DPSPs are not to be bypassed; they guide reasonableness.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: the collective good is a key justification for restrictions.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is also correct.

  64. Q64Open question

    Who among the following determines the qualifications requisite for appointment as a member of the Finance Commission?

    1. President of India
    2. Council of Ministers
    3. Parliament by law
    4. Union Cabinet
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Parliament by law

    Explanation

    Article 280(2): Parliament may by law determine qualifications; it did so via the Finance Commission (Misc. Provisions) Act, 1951.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the President appoints members but does not fix qualifications.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the Council of Ministers.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Article 280(2) lets Parliament set qualifications by law (Finance Commission Act, 1951).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the Cabinet.

  65. Q65Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1) Summoning of the House means its convocation. 2) Prorogation ends a session. 3) Dissolution terminates a House. 4) Prorogation of a session can be effected by the Leader of the House alone. Which of these is NOT true?

    1. 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 3
    3. Only 2
    4. Only 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Only 4

    Explanation

    Under Article 85, the President summons and prorogues the Houses and may dissolve the Lok Sabha.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: both are true statements.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: both are true statements.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: prorogation does end a session, so 2 is true.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: prorogation is ordered by the President (Art. 85), not the Leader of the House.

  66. Q66Open question

    Who is empowered to review the financial position of the Panchayats?

    1. Chief Minister
    2. Chairman of the Block Committee
    3. Chairman of the District Council
    4. Finance Commission constituted by the Governor
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Finance Commission constituted by the Governor

    Explanation

    Article 243-I requires the Governor to constitute a State Finance Commission to review Panchayats' finances.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the Chief Minister.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a constitutional reviewing authority.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the reviewing authority.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Article 243-I: the State Finance Commission, set up by the Governor every five years, reviews Panchayat finances.

  67. Q67Open question

    The Atmanirbhar Bharat Scheme announced by the Government helps in: 1) Enhancing India's manufacturing capabilities and exports across industries 2) Incentivising foreign investment for domestic production Of these:

    1. 1 is correct
    2. 2 is correct
    3. Both 1 and 2 are correct
    4. Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2 are correct

    Explanation

    Atmanirbhar Bharat aims to make India self-reliant by strengthening manufacturing, exports and investment, including FDI.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is also correct.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is also correct.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: schemes like PLI boost manufacturing and exports and attract foreign investment into domestic production.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: both are correct.

  68. Q68Open question

    What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj?

    1. To increase agricultural production
    2. To increase employment
    3. To increase people's political awareness
    4. To enable people to participate in development administration
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) To enable people to participate in development administration

    Explanation

    Panchayati Raj is democratic decentralisation: involving people directly in local development administration.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: a possible outcome, not the main purpose.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the core purpose.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a by-product, not the main aim.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Panchayati Raj decentralises power so people take part in planning and development.

  69. Q69Open question

    What is true about a Censure Motion?

    1. It is not different from a No-confidence motion
    2. It is different from a No-confidence motion
    3. It is not mandatory to mention the reasons in this motion
    4. Permission of the House is not essential to present it
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) It is different from a No-confidence motion

    Explanation

    A censure motion disapproves specific policies or actions and must state reasons; a no-confidence motion needs no reasons and topples the government if passed.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the two are different motions.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: a censure motion must state reasons, can target a minister, and its passage does not force resignation.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: reasons must be stated in a censure motion.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: it needs the Speaker's admission/leave of the House.

  70. Q70Open question

    Which one of the following subjects falls within the jurisdiction of both the High Court and the Supreme Court?

    1. Dispute between the Centre and a State
    2. Dispute among States
    3. Protection of fundamental rights
    4. Protection from violation of the Constitution
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Protection of fundamental rights

    Explanation

    Fundamental rights can be enforced in the Supreme Court (Art. 32) and High Courts (Art. 226).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: exclusive original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court (Art. 131).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: also exclusive to the Supreme Court (Art. 131).

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: both can issue writs: SC under Art. 32, HCs under Art. 226.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: too broad; the specific shared writ jurisdiction is over fundamental rights.

  71. Q71Open question

    Which Indian leader for the first time used the 'safety-valve theory' to attack the Moderates in the Congress?

    1. Bipin Chandra Pal
    2. Lala Lajpat Rai
    3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
    4. Dadabhai Naoroji
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Lala Lajpat Rai

    Explanation

    The safety-valve theory (Congress as a vent for Indian discontent created by Hume) was first used by Lala Lajpat Rai against the Moderates.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the first to use it.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: he used it in 1916 (Young India) to attack the Moderates.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not credited with first using it.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: he was himself a Moderate.

  72. Q72Open question

    On which Viceroy was a bomb thrown on the occasion of his state entry into Delhi?

    1. Lord Curzon
    2. Lord Minto
    3. Lord Hardinge
    4. Lord Wavell
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Lord Hardinge

    Explanation

    Rash Behari Bose and Basant Kumar Biswas organised the bomb attack on Lord Hardinge during the capital's shift to Delhi (1912).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: no such attack on Curzon.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Minto survived an attack at Ahmedabad (1909), not at Delhi entry.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: a bomb was thrown at Hardinge in Chandni Chowk on 23 Dec 1912 (Delhi Conspiracy).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: no such incident.

  73. Q73Open question

    Who got an opportunity to become a Professor of Indian Philosophy in the University of California in 1911?

    1. Sohan Singh Bhakna
    2. Virendranath Chattopadhyay
    3. Har Dayal
    4. Shyamji Krishna Varma
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Har Dayal

    Explanation

    Lala Har Dayal lectured on Indian philosophy in California in 1911 and co-founded the Ghadar Party in 1913.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: he was the Ghadar Party's first president, not a professor.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: he worked in Europe (Berlin Committee).

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Har Dayal taught Indian philosophy (Stanford, California) in 1911 before founding the Ghadar Party.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: he was based in London (India House).

  74. Q74Open question

    Name the Principal of M.A.O. College, Aligarh, who encouraged Muslim communalism in the last decades of the 19th century.

    1. Dunlop Smith
    2. Minto
    3. William Morris
    4. Theodore Beck
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Theodore Beck

    Explanation

    Theodore Beck, Principal of MAO College (1883–99), encouraged Muslim separatism and opposed the Congress.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: he was Minto's private secretary, not MAO principal.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Minto was Viceroy (1905–10).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not associated with MAO College.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Beck, principal from 1883, pushed separatist, anti-Congress politics.

  75. Q75Open question

    'Young India', a nationalist paper, was started by:

    1. Annie Besant
    2. Mahatma Gandhi
    3. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
    4. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi

    Explanation

    Young India is best known as Gandhi's weekly (1919–1931). Note: it was first founded in 1916 by Jamnadas Dwarkadas, and Lajpat Rai also ran a 'Young India' in the USA, so this question was disputed after the exam.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: she ran New India and Commonweal.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Gandhi published Young India as his weekly from 1919.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Tilak ran Kesari and Mahratta.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Azad ran Al-Hilal and Al-Balagh.

  76. Q76Open question

    Which Commission accentuated the discontent among all political groups and parties for not associating any Indian member with it?

    1. Welby Commission
    2. Cripps Mission
    3. Simon Commission
    4. Cabinet Mission
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Simon Commission

    Explanation

    The Simon Commission had seven British MPs and no Indian member, uniting Indian parties in protest.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Welby Commission (1895) had Dadabhai Naoroji as a member.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Cripps Mission (1942) was a negotiating mission, not this controversy.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the all-white Simon Commission (1927) was boycotted with 'Simon Go Back'.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Cabinet Mission (1946) negotiated with Indian leaders.

  77. Q77Open question

    Who assumed command of the Indian National Army and gave the famous battle cry 'Chalo Delhi'?

    1. Rash Behari Bose
    2. Mohan Singh
    3. Shah Nawaz Khan
    4. Subhas Chandra Bose
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Subhas Chandra Bose

    Explanation

    Subhas Chandra Bose took over the INA in Singapore in 1943 and gave the slogans 'Chalo Delhi' and 'Jai Hind'.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: he handed over leadership to Subhas Bose in 1943.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: he formed the first INA (1942) but did not give 'Chalo Delhi'.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: an INA officer, not its supreme commander.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Bose took command in 1943 and gave the 'Chalo Delhi' call.

  78. Q78Open question

    "We shall either free India or die in the attempt..." Who said it?

    1. Jawaharlal Nehru
    2. Mahatma Gandhi
    3. Abul Kalam Azad
    4. V.D. Savarkar
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Mahatma Gandhi

    Explanation

    This line is from Gandhi's 'Do or Die' call launching the Quit India Movement in 1942.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not Nehru's words.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Gandhi said this in his 'Do or Die' speech at the Quit India session (8 Aug 1942).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not Azad's words.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not Savarkar's words.

  79. Q79Open question

    Who raised the cry "Divide and Quit"?

    1. M.A. Ansari
    2. M.A. Jinnah
    3. Jawaharlal Nehru
    4. Muhammad Iqbal
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) M.A. Jinnah

    Explanation

    In response to Quit India (1942), the Muslim League under Jinnah raised the slogan 'Divide and Quit'.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Ansari was a nationalist Congress leader.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Jinnah answered 'Quit India' with 'Divide and Quit'.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Nehru opposed partition demands.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Iqbal died in 1938, before this slogan.

  80. Q80Open question

    Which Act provided for the partition of India into two new dominions – India and Pakistan?

    1. Government of India Act, 1919
    2. Government of India Act, 1935
    3. Indian Independence Act, 1947
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Indian Independence Act, 1947

    Explanation

    The Indian Independence Act, 1947 (based on the Mountbatten Plan) partitioned British India into two dominions.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: it introduced dyarchy in provinces.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: it proposed an all-India federation, not partition.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: it created the dominions of India and Pakistan from 15 August 1947.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: option C is correct.

  81. Q81Open question

    Which Congress leader visited Bihar in 1918 to strengthen the activities of the Home Rule League?

    1. B.G. Tilak
    2. Annie Besant
    3. Mahatma Gandhi
    4. M.A. Ansari
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Annie Besant

    Explanation

    Bihar's Home Rule League (1916) was affiliated to Besant's league; her 1918 visit boosted its work.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Tilak's league worked mainly in Maharashtra, Karnataka and CP.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Besant's All-India Home Rule League covered Bihar, and she toured Bihar in 1918.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Gandhi was not a Home Rule League leader.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not linked to this visit.

  82. Q82Open question

    The Champaran Agrarian Committee was appointed as a result of an agreement between:

    1. Indian Government and Gandhiji
    2. Indian Government and Raj Kumar Shukla
    3. Indian Government and Rajendra Prasad
    4. Indian Government and Anugraha Narayan Singh
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Indian Government and Gandhiji

    Explanation

    In June 1917 the Bihar government formed the Champaran Agrarian Enquiry Committee with Gandhi as a member; it led to the Champaran Agrarian Act, 1918.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the government set it up after talks with Gandhi, who was made a member.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Shukla invited Gandhi but was not a party to the agreement.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Prasad assisted Gandhi but was not the party.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: he assisted Gandhi but was not the party.

  83. Q83Open question

    Who was the prominent leader of the Kisan Sabha movement in Bihar?

    1. Raj Kumar Shukla
    2. Sahajanand Saraswati
    3. Acharya Narendra Dev
    4. Baba Ram Chandra
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Sahajanand Saraswati

    Explanation

    Swami Sahajanand Saraswati founded the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha in 1929 and later led the All India Kisan Sabha (1936).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: associated with Champaran, not the Kisan Sabha.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: he founded the Bihar Provincial Kisan Sabha (1929).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a socialist leader, mainly in UP.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: led the Awadh Kisan Sabha (UP).

  84. Q84Open question

    Who was killed while hoisting the national flag in the area of Bikram Police Station?

    1. Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari
    2. Ram Narain of Bikrampur
    3. Satyendra of Gorakhari
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari

    Explanation

    During the 1942 Quit India Movement in Patna district, Raghunath Singh of Gorakhari was killed hoisting the flag at Bikram police station.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: he was shot while hoisting the tricolour at Bikram during the Quit India Movement.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the martyr of this incident.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the martyr of this incident.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: option A is correct.

  85. Q85Open question

    Who was the Chief Minister (Premier) of Bihar in March 1939?

    1. Anugraha Narayan Singh
    2. Rajendra Prasad
    3. Shri Krishna Singh
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Shri Krishna Singh

    Explanation

    Shri Krishna Singh headed Bihar's Congress ministry (1937–39) under the GoI Act 1935 until Congress ministries resigned in 1939.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: he was the deputy and finance minister.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: he never headed the Bihar ministry.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Sri Babu led the Congress ministry from July 1937 till October 1939.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: option C is correct.

  86. Q86Open question

    Match List-I (Places in Ancient India) with List-II (Present State): a) Karnasuvarna b) Pragjyotisha c) Girnar d) Pratishthan 1) Maharashtra 2) Gujarat 3) West Bengal 4) Assam

    1. a-4, b-3, c-2, d-1
    2. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
    3. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
    4. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

    Explanation

    Karnasuvarna was Shashanka's capital (Murshidabad, WB); Pragjyotisha is ancient Kamarupa (Assam); Girnar is in Junagadh; Pratishthan is Paithan, the Satavahana capital.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Karnasuvarna is in Bengal and Pragjyotisha in Assam, not the reverse.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Karnasuvarna–West Bengal, Pragjyotisha–Assam, Girnar–Gujarat, Pratishthan–Maharashtra.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Pragjyotisha is in Assam, Girnar in Gujarat.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

  87. Q87Open question

    Which one of the following is NOT related to the Rigvedic period?

    1. Ghosha
    2. Gargi
    3. Apala
    4. Vishvavara
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Gargi

    Explanation

    Ghosha, Apala, Vishvavara and Lopamudra are Rigvedic women; Gargi appears in the Brihadaranyaka Upanishad (later Vedic).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Ghosha composed Rigvedic hymns.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Gargi Vachaknavi belongs to the later Vedic (Upanishadic) period.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Apala is a Rigvedic woman seer.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Vishvavara is a Rigvedic woman seer.

  88. Q88Open question

    Match List-I (Event/Place) with List-II (Person): a) Chola Gangam Lake b) Appointment of Dharma Mahamatras c) Assembly at Prayag d) Sudarshan Lake 1) Chandragupta Maurya 2) Harshavardhana 3) Rajendra I 4) Ashoka

    1. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
    2. a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
    3. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
    4. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

    Explanation

    Rajendra I built Chola Gangam after his Ganga campaign; Ashoka appointed Dharma Mahamatras; Harsha held quinquennial assemblies at Prayag; Sudarshan Lake was built under Chandragupta Maurya.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Chola Gangam–Rajendra I, Dharma Mahamatras–Ashoka, Prayag–Harsha, Sudarshan–Chandragupta.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Chola Gangam was built by Rajendra I.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: the Prayag assembly was Harsha's.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

  89. Q89Open question

    Who among the following rulers ruled for the longest period?

    1. Alauddin Khilji
    2. Muhammad bin Tughluq
    3. Bahlol Lodi
    4. Balban
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Bahlol Lodi

    Explanation

    Bahlol Lodi, founder of the Lodi dynasty, reigned for about 38 years.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: ruled about 20 years (1296–1316).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: ruled about 26 years (1325–1351).

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: ruled about 38 years (1451–1489), the longest here.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: ruled about 20 years (1266–1287).

  90. Q90Open question

    Consider the following dynasties of ancient India: 1) Shunga 2) Maurya 3) Kushana 4) Kanva. Which is the correct chronological order of their rule?

    1. 2-1-4-3
    2. 1-2-3-4
    3. 2-3-1-4
    4. 2-1-3-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2-1-4-3

    Explanation

    Maurya (c. 321–185 BCE) → Shunga (185–73 BCE) → Kanva (73–28 BCE) → Kushana (1st century CE onward).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Maurya → Shunga → Kanva → Kushana.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: the Mauryas came before the Shungas.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: the Kushanas came after the Shungas and Kanvas.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: the Kanvas (c. 73–28 BCE) preceded the Kushanas.

  91. Q91Open question

    Which one of the following was NOT written by Tulsidas?

    1. Geetavali
    2. Vinay Patrika
    3. Sahitya Lahari
    4. Kavitavali
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Sahitya Lahari

    Explanation

    Surdas wrote Sur Sagar, Sur Saravali and Sahitya Lahari; the others are Tulsidas's works.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: a work of Tulsidas.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a work of Tulsidas.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Sahitya Lahari is by Surdas.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a work of Tulsidas.

  92. Q92Open question

    Match List-I (Building) with List-II (Built by): a) Kabuli Bagh Mosque b) Adhai Din ka Jhonpra c) Allahabad Fort d) Itmad-ud-Daulah's Tomb 1) Qutb-ud-din Aibak 2) Nur Jahan 3) Akbar 4) Babur

    1. a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
    2. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
    3. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
    4. a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2

    Explanation

    Babur built the Kabuli Bagh mosque at Panipat (1527); Nur Jahan built her father's tomb at Agra.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Kabuli Bagh–Babur, Adhai Din ka Jhonpra–Aibak, Allahabad Fort–Akbar, Itmad-ud-Daulah–Nur Jahan.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Kabuli Bagh mosque was built by Babur.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Allahabad Fort was built by Akbar.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a and b are swapped.

  93. Q93Open question

    Which one of the following is NOT correctly matched (Person – Associated with)?

    1. James Augustus Hicky – Calcutta Chronicle
    2. Dayananda Saraswati – Satyarth Prakash
    3. Ramaswamy Naicker – Justice Party
    4. Jyotirao Phule – Satyashodhak Samaj
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) James Augustus Hicky – Calcutta Chronicle

    Explanation

    Hicky's Bengal Gazette (1780) was India's first newspaper; the Calcutta Chronicle was a different paper.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Hicky published the Bengal Gazette (1780), not the Calcutta Chronicle.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: correctly matched.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: correctly matched (Periyar led the Justice Party).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: correctly matched (founded 1873).

  94. Q94Open question

    Match List-I (Father) with List-II (Son): a) Babur b) Akbar c) Shah Jahan d) Jahangir 1) Salim 2) Khusrau 3) Kamran 4) Murad

    1. a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
    2. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
    3. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
    4. a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2

    Explanation

    Kamran (Babur), Salim/Jahangir (Akbar), Murad Bakhsh (Shah Jahan) and Khusrau (Jahangir).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Kamran was Babur's son, not Shah Jahan's.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Babur–Kamran, Akbar–Salim, Shah Jahan–Murad (Bakhsh), Jahangir–Khusrau.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Khusrau was Jahangir's son.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

  95. Q95Open question

    Which Buddhist council was NOT held in Bihar?

    1. First
    2. Second
    3. Third
    4. Fourth
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Fourth

    Explanation

    Councils: Rajagriha, Vaishali, Pataliputra (all in Bihar) and Kashmir (fourth).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: held at Rajagriha (Bihar).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: held at Vaishali (Bihar).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: held at Pataliputra (Bihar).

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: held at Kundalvana in Kashmir under Kanishka.

  96. Q96Open question

    Which of the following statements about Subhas Chandra Bose are correct? 1) He was elected President of the Indian National Congress at the Tripuri session of 1938 AD. 2) He escaped from house internment in January 1941 AD. 3) On 21 October 1943 AD he constituted the Provisional Government of Free India in Singapore.

    1. Only 1 and 2
    2. Only 2 and 3
    3. Only 1 and 3
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only 2 and 3

    Explanation

    Bose became Congress President at Haripura (1938) and was re-elected at Tripuri (1939), so statement 1 mixes them up.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Tripuri was in 1939; 1938 was Haripura.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the January 1941 escape and the 21 Oct 1943 Provisional Government are correct.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 has the wrong year.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is incorrect.

  97. Q97Open question

    Who among the following was NOT an Acharya at Nalanda University?

    1. Nagarjuna
    2. Kautilya
    3. Sheelbhadra
    4. Shantarakshita
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Kautilya

    Explanation

    Kautilya (Chanakya) belongs to the Mauryan era and Taxila; Nalanda flourished from the Gupta period.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: traditionally associated with Nalanda.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Kautilya was associated with Taxila, centuries before Nalanda.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Shilabhadra was Nalanda's head when Xuanzang visited.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a famous Nalanda scholar who went to Tibet.

  98. Q98Open question

    Consider the following events of modern Indian history: 1) Death sentence to Raja Nand Kumar 2) Treaty of Salbai 3) Battle of Wandiwash 4) Death of Tipu Sultan Which is the correct chronological order?

    1. 2-3-4-1
    2. 3-1-2-4
    3. 2-4-1-3
    4. 3-2-1-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 3-1-2-4

    Explanation

    Wandiwash (1760), Nand Kumar hanged (1775), Treaty of Salbai (1782), Tipu killed (1799).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Wandiwash (1760) came first.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Wandiwash 1760 → Nand Kumar 1775 → Salbai 1782 → Tipu 1799.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: wrong order.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Nand Kumar's execution (1775) preceded Salbai (1782).

  99. Q99Open question

    Among the following newspapers of Bihar, which was the first one to be published?

    1. Bihar Bandhu
    2. Patna Harkara
    3. Akhbar-e-Bihar
    4. Bihar Herald
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Patna Harkara

    Explanation

    Patna Harkara is generally treated as Bihar's first newspaper among these options.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Bihar Bandhu (1872) was the first Hindi paper of Bihar, but came later.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Patna Harkara is regarded as the earliest of these.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: came after Patna Harkara.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Bihar Herald (1875) came later.

  100. Q100Open question

    Match List-I (Event/Organisation) with List-II (Related Person): a) Champaran Satyagraha b) Azad Dasta c) Individual Satyagraha in Bihar, 1940 d) Kisan Sabha, Bihar 1) Jayaprakash Narayan 2) Shyam Narayan Singh 3) Sahajanand Saraswati 4) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

    1. a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
    2. a-2, b-3, c-1, d-4
    3. a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
    4. a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) a-4, b-1, c-2, d-3

    Explanation

    Rajendra Prasad assisted Gandhi at Champaran; JP organised the Azad Dasta from Nepal (1942); Sahajanand led the Bihar Kisan Sabha.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Azad Dasta was formed by JP.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Champaran is linked to Rajendra Prasad.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Champaran–Rajendra Prasad, Azad Dasta–JP, Individual Satyagraha–Shyam Narayan Singh, Kisan Sabha–Sahajanand.

  101. Q101Open question

    The Maginot Line exists between which countries?

    1. U.S.A. & Canada
    2. France & Germany
    3. Namibia and Angola
    4. South Korea & North Korea
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) France & Germany

    Explanation

    The Maginot Line was a French defensive line facing Germany, named after War Minister André Maginot.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: their border is the 49th parallel, not the Maginot Line.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: France built the Maginot Line of fortifications along its German border in the 1930s.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related to the Maginot Line.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: they are divided by the 38th parallel/DMZ.

  102. Q102Open question

    The Strait of Hormuz connects:

    1. The Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman
    2. Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden
    3. Red Sea to the Indian Ocean
    4. Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) The Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman

    Explanation

    The Strait of Hormuz, between Iran and Oman, joins the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Hormuz links the Persian Gulf with the Gulf of Oman and Arabian Sea.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: that is the Bab-el-Mandeb strait.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: also via Bab-el-Mandeb, not Hormuz.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: that is the Suez Canal.

  103. Q103Open question

    Where is "Ground Zero"?

    1. Greenwich
    2. New York
    3. Indira Point
    4. Sriharikota
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) New York

    Explanation

    'Ground Zero' commonly refers to the site of the World Trade Center in New York destroyed on 11 Sept 2001.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Greenwich is the Prime Meridian (0° longitude).

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Ground Zero is the World Trade Center site of the 9/11 attacks.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Indira Point is India's southernmost tip.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Sriharikota is ISRO's launch site.

  104. Q104Open question

    Which of the following isthmuses has been known as the 'Devil's Neck'?

    1. Isthmus of Panama
    2. Kra Isthmus
    3. Karelian Isthmus
    4. Isthmus of Corinth
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Isthmus of Panama

    Explanation

    The Isthmus of Panama was called the 'Devil's Neck' because crossing it was dangerous due to jungle and disease.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: its deadly jungles and swamps (Darién) earned it the nickname 'Devil's Neck'.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Kra (Thailand) is not known by this name.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not known by this name.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not known by this name.

  105. Q105Open question

    'Ladang' refers to:

    1. Shifting agriculture
    2. Plantation agriculture
    3. Subsistence type of agriculture
    4. Dry farming
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Shifting agriculture

    Explanation

    Shifting cultivation has regional names: Ladang (Malaysia/Indonesia), Jhum (NE India), Milpa (Mexico), Roca (Brazil).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Ladang is the Malaysian/Indonesian name for slash-and-burn shifting cultivation.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: plantations are large commercial estates.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: too general; Ladang specifically means shifting cultivation.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: dry farming is rain-fed farming in low-rainfall areas.

  106. Q106Open question

    Which is the largest river island in the world?

    1. Srirangam Island
    2. Majuli Island
    3. Bhavani Island
    4. Agatti Island
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Majuli Island

    Explanation

    Majuli, in the Brahmaputra, was certified by Guinness as the world's largest river island (2016).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: a Kaveri river island, much smaller.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Majuli in the Brahmaputra (Assam) is recognised as the largest river island.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a Krishna river island, much smaller.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Agatti is a Lakshadweep coral island, not a river island.

  107. Q107Open question

    The second largest river basin of India is:

    1. Mahanadi river basin
    2. Narmada river basin
    3. Godavari river basin
    4. Kaveri river basin
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Godavari river basin

    Explanation

    Ganga is first; the Godavari ('Dakshin Ganga') basin is second.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: smaller than the Godavari basin.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: smaller than the Godavari basin.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: after the Ganga, the Godavari has India's largest basin (~10% of area).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: much smaller.

  108. Q108Open question

    Which of the following is the place of confluence of the Alaknanda and Bhagirathi?

    1. Vishnuprayag
    2. Karnaprayag
    3. Rudraprayag
    4. Devprayag
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Devprayag

    Explanation

    At Devprayag the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda join and the river is called the Ganga.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Alaknanda meets Dhauliganga here.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Alaknanda meets Pindar here.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Alaknanda meets Mandakini here.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Alaknanda and Bhagirathi meet here to form the Ganga.

  109. Q109Open question

    The two volcanic islands in Indian territory are:

    1. Kavaratti and New Moore
    2. Bitra and Kavaratti
    3. Pamban and Barren
    4. Narcondam and Barren
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Narcondam and Barren

    Explanation

    Barren Island has India's only active volcano; Narcondam is a dormant volcano, both in the Andamans.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Kavaratti is a coral island; New Moore was a sediment island.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: both are Lakshadweep coral islands.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Pamban is not volcanic.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: both are volcanic islands in the Andaman Sea.

  110. Q110Open question

    The art of crafting which item in Meerut has received a GI tag?

    1. Sports goods
    2. Musical instruments
    3. Laddoo
    4. Scissors
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Scissors

    Explanation

    Meerut's hand-made scissors, a centuries-old craft, carry a Geographical Indication tag.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Meerut is famous for sports goods, but the GI is for scissors.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the GI-tagged item.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the GI-tagged item.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: 'Meerut Scissors' (Kainchi) received a GI tag.

  111. Q111Open question

    In India, the Temperate Forest Research Centre is in which city?

    1. Shimla
    2. Ranchi
    3. Srinagar
    4. Dehradun
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Shimla

    Explanation

    ICFRE's Himalayan Forest Research Institute, Shimla, works on temperate/Himalayan forests.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the Himalayan Forest Research Institute, focused on temperate forests, is in Shimla.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Ranchi hosts the Institute of Forest Productivity, not temperate research.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the designated centre.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Dehradun hosts the FRI (national level), not the temperate centre.

  112. Q112Open question

    Kanha National Park is located in:

    1. Uttarakhand
    2. Assam
    3. Madhya Pradesh
    4. Maharashtra
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Madhya Pradesh

    Explanation

    Kanha Tiger Reserve in Madhya Pradesh is known for the hard-ground barasingha.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Uttarakhand has Jim Corbett, not Kanha.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Assam has Kaziranga.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Kanha (Mandla–Balaghat) is in Madhya Pradesh.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Maharashtra has Tadoba, not Kanha.

  113. Q113Open question

    'Loktak' is a:

    1. Valley
    2. Lake
    3. River
    4. Mountain range
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Lake

    Explanation

    Loktak Lake hosts Keibul Lamjao, the world's only floating national park.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Loktak is not a valley.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Loktak in Manipur is the largest freshwater lake in NE India, with floating phumdis.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Loktak is not a river.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Loktak is not a mountain range.

  114. Q114Open question

    Which of the following parks/sanctuaries comes under Project Tiger in Bihar?

    1. Valmiki National Park
    2. Udaypur Wildlife Sanctuary
    3. Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary
    4. None of these
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Valmiki National Park

    Explanation

    Valmiki Tiger Reserve (declared 1994) is Bihar's tiger reserve under Project Tiger.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Valmiki (West Champaran) is Bihar's tiger reserve.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a tiger reserve.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a tiger reserve.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Valmiki is a tiger reserve.

  115. Q115Open question

    Which of the following is the state animal of Bihar?

    1. Cow
    2. Bull
    3. Buffalo
    4. Horse
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Bull

    Explanation

    Bihar's official state animal is the gaur (Bos gaurus). None of the options names it exactly; 'Bull' is the nearest and is commonly used in Bihar GK books.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the state animal.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Bihar's state animal is the gaur (Indian bison), a wild bovine often listed as 'bull/बैल' in exam material; this is the closest option.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a buffalo is a different animal from the gaur.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the state animal.

  116. Q116Open question

    In which year was Nalanda University re-established in Bihar?

    1. 2005
    2. 2007
    3. 2008
    4. 2014
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 2014

    Explanation

    The Nalanda University Act was passed in 2010 and teaching started at Rajgir in September 2014.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: too early.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: the idea was endorsed at the East Asia Summit then, but classes had not begun.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the year it reopened.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the new Nalanda University began academic sessions in 2014 (after the 2010 Act).

  117. Q117Open question

    The Karmanasa river originates in:

    1. Kaimur district
    2. Vaishali district
    3. Patna district
    4. Bikram district
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Kaimur district

    Explanation

    The Karmanasa rises in the Kaimur range and forms part of the Bihar–UP border before joining the Ganga.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: it rises in the Kaimur hills (Kaimur district) region.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Vaishali is in the plains north of the Ganga.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not its source.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Bikram is a block in Patna, not a district.

  118. Q118Open question

    Bihar produces ____% of the pyrite of whole India.

    1. 75
    2. 85
    3. 95
    4. 100
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 95

    Explanation

    Amjhore in Rohtas district is India's main pyrite source; Bihar accounts for about 95%.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: too low.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: too low.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Bihar (Amjhore, Rohtas) produces about 95% of India's pyrite.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: small amounts come from other states too.

  119. Q119Open question

    Gold is found in which district of Bihar?

    1. Gaya district
    2. Jamui district
    3. Nalanda district
    4. Bhagalpur district
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Jamui district

    Explanation

    Jamui (Sono block) has large gold ore resources identified by the GSI.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the gold-bearing district.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the Sono (Karmatiya) area of Jamui holds India's largest gold reserve estimate.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the gold-bearing district.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the gold-bearing district.

  120. Q120Open question

    Most of Bihar comes under which of the following climate types?

    1. Subtropical monsoon
    2. Tropical savannah
    3. Hot and dry
    4. Hot and semi-arid
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Subtropical monsoon

    Explanation

    Bihar lies in the subtropical zone and receives most rain from the south-west monsoon.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Bihar has a humid subtropical monsoon climate.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: savannah type covers parts of peninsular India.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Bihar gets ample monsoon rain.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: semi-arid applies to Rajasthan/Gujarat, not Bihar.

  121. Q121Open question

    We apply a force of 200 newtons on a wooden box and push it across the floor at constant velocity. The friction force will be:

    1. 100 N
    2. 200 N
    3. 300 N
    4. 400 N
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 200 N

    Explanation

    By Newton's first law, zero acceleration means the forces balance: friction = 200 N.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: at constant velocity net force is zero, so friction equals 200 N.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: constant velocity means applied force = friction = 200 N.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: friction cannot exceed the applied force if velocity is constant.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not balanced with 200 N.

  122. Q122Open question

    A truck starts from rest down a hill with constant acceleration. It covers 400 m in 20 s. If the mass of the truck is 7 tonnes, what is the force acting on it?

    1. 11000 N
    2. 12000 N
    3. 13000 N
    4. 14000 N
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 14000 N

    Explanation

    a = 2s/t² = 800/400 = 2 m/s²; F = ma = 7000 × 2 = 14000 N.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: F = 7000 × 2 = 14000 N.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: F = 7000 × 2 = 14000 N.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: F = 7000 × 2 = 14000 N.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: s = ½at² → 400 = ½a(400) → a = 2 m/s²; F = 7000 kg × 2 = 14000 N.

  123. Q123Open question

    The energy consumed in a home in a month is 250 units. The total energy in joules will be:

    1. 9 × 10^5 J
    2. 8 × 10^6 J
    3. 9 × 10^8 J
    4. 10^5 J
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 9 × 10^8 J

    Explanation

    One unit is 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10^6 J, so 250 units = 9 × 10^8 J.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: far too small.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: far too small.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: 1 unit = 1 kWh = 3.6 × 10^6 J; 250 × 3.6 × 10^6 = 9 × 10^8 J.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: far too small.

  124. Q124Open question

    In which medium is the speed of sound maximum?

    1. Steel
    2. Water
    3. Air
    4. Hydrogen
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Steel

    Explanation

    Sound is fastest in solids, then liquids, then gases; steel is the fastest medium here.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: sound travels fastest in solids like steel (~5000–6000 m/s).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: about 1500 m/s, slower than steel.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: about 343 m/s, the slowest here.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: about 1270 m/s, still slower than steel.

  125. Q125Open question

    The potential energy of a freely falling body continuously decreases. Therefore:

    1. The principle of conservation of energy is violated
    2. The principle of conservation of energy is not violated
    3. Gravitational force is violated
    4. Gravitational force is not violated
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) The principle of conservation of energy is not violated

    Explanation

    As the body falls, potential energy converts to kinetic energy; total mechanical energy is conserved.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: lost potential energy becomes kinetic energy, so energy is conserved.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: PE + KE stays constant (ignoring air resistance).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: meaningless; gravity is what causes the fall.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: irrelevant to the energy question asked.

  126. Q126Open question

    A pair of oxen exerts a force of 140 N on a plough. The field ploughed is 15 m long. How much work is done in ploughing the length of the field?

    1. 1900 J
    2. 2000 J
    3. 2100 J
    4. 2200 J
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 2100 J

    Explanation

    Work = force × displacement = 140 N × 15 m = 2100 J.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: W = 140 × 15 = 2100 J.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: W = 140 × 15 = 2100 J.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: W = F × s = 140 × 15 = 2100 J.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: W = 140 × 15 = 2100 J.

  127. Q127Open question

    The focal length of a plane mirror is:

    1. +1 cm
    2. −1 cm
    3. 2 cm
    4. Infinity
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Infinity

    Explanation

    A plane mirror can be seen as a sphere of infinite radius, so its focal length is infinite.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: a plane mirror has no finite focus.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a plane mirror has no finite focus.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a plane mirror has no finite focus.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: its radius of curvature is infinite, so f = R/2 is infinite.

  128. Q128Open question

    Which term in the following does NOT represent electric power in an electric circuit?

    1. IR
    2. I²R
    3. VI
    4. V²/R
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) IR

    Explanation

    Power P = VI = I²R = V²/R. IR is just voltage by Ohm's law.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: IR equals voltage (V), not power.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: P = I²R is a valid power expression.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: P = VI is a valid power expression.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: P = V²/R is a valid power expression.

  129. Q129Open question

    During a short circuit, the value of electric current in the circuit:

    1. Becomes very low
    2. Does not change
    3. Increases very sharply
    4. Changes continuously
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Increases very sharply

    Explanation

    In a short circuit, live and neutral touch, resistance falls almost to zero and current rises sharply.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: resistance drops, so current rises.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: current changes sharply.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: near-zero resistance makes current (I = V/R) very large.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: the defining feature is a sudden large rise.

  130. Q130Open question

    Which device protects equipment from electrical damage due to excess current?

    1. Fuse
    2. Generator
    3. Motor
    4. Current controller
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Fuse

    Explanation

    A fuse is a safety device with a low-melting wire that cuts off excess current.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: a fuse melts and breaks the circuit when current exceeds a safe limit.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a generator produces electricity.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a motor converts electrical to mechanical energy.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the standard safety device.

  131. Q131Open question

    The pH value of a 0.1 N HCl solution is approximately:

    1. 1.0
    2. 11.0
    3. 10
    4. 2.0
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1.0

    Explanation

    HCl fully ionises, so [H⁺] = 0.1 mol/L and pH = 1.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: [H⁺] = 0.1 M, so pH = −log(0.1) = 1.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: pH 11 is basic; HCl is a strong acid.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: pH 10 is basic.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: pH 2 would be 0.01 M HCl.

  132. Q132Open question

    Which compound is known as a glow-in-the-dark (night glowing) pigment?

    1. Europium-doped strontium aluminate
    2. Copper sulphide-doped zinc oxide
    3. Barium sulphate-doped copper carbonate
    4. Boron oxide-doped copper sulphate
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Europium-doped strontium aluminate

    Explanation

    Europium (and dysprosium) doped strontium aluminate glows for hours after charging with light.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: SrAl₂O₄:Eu is the main long-afterglow phosphor.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: the older phosphor was copper-doped zinc sulphide, not this.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a luminous pigment.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a luminous pigment.

  133. Q133Open question

    Which material is used for smart film?

    1. Indium tin oxide
    2. Calcium carbonate
    3. Zinc chloride
    4. Silica
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Indium tin oxide

    Explanation

    Smart (PDLC) films sandwich liquid crystals between ITO-coated layers that carry the switching voltage.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: ITO is a transparent conductor used in smart (switchable) films and touchscreens.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not conductive or transparent for this use.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not used for smart films.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: silica is an insulator, not the electrode layer.

  134. Q134Open question

    Which metal compound is used for the treatment of carcinoma?

    1. Platinum
    2. Chromium
    3. Iron
    4. Chlorine
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Platinum

    Explanation

    Platinum drugs such as cisplatin and carboplatin are used in chemotherapy for many carcinomas.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: cisplatin, a platinum compound, is a key anti-cancer drug.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: chromium compounds are not used for this.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: iron compounds treat anaemia, not cancer.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: chlorine is not a metal.

  135. Q135Open question

    Which compound is used in contraceptive pills?

    1. Cholecalciferol
    2. Levonorgestrel
    3. Venlafaxine
    4. Cetirizine
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Levonorgestrel

    Explanation

    Levonorgestrel is a progestogen used in combined and emergency contraceptive pills.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is vitamin D3.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: a synthetic progestin used in regular and emergency pills.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: an antidepressant.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: an antihistamine for allergies.

  136. Q136Open question

    Why is oil not stored in a galvanised iron pot?

    1. It produces a toxic compound
    2. It reduces the quality of oil
    3. Corrosion is observed
    4. All of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) All of the above

    Explanation

    Galvanised iron is zinc-coated; acids in oil react with zinc, giving harmful compounds, off-flavours and corrosion.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: true, but the other reasons also apply.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: true, but the other reasons also apply.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: true, but the other reasons also apply.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: fatty acids react with the zinc coating, forming toxic zinc compounds, spoiling the oil and corroding the pot.

  137. Q137Open question

    Which compound has been used to increase the octane rating of petrol?

    1. Trimethylhexane
    2. Tetramethyl oxide
    3. Tetraethyl lead
    4. Triethyl toluene
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Tetraethyl lead

    Explanation

    Tetraethyl lead (TEL) reduces engine knocking and raises octane number; it has been phased out due to lead pollution.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the classic anti-knock additive.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a standard additive.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: TEL was the classic anti-knock agent (now phased out for health reasons).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a standard additive.

  138. Q138Open question

    Full form of the biodegradable polymer PHBV:

    1. Polyhydroxy butyl vanillin
    2. Poly hydroxy butane veratric acid
    3. Poly(3-hydroxybutyrate-co-3-hydroxyvalerate)
    4. Poly hydroxybutyric acid veratric acid
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Poly(3-hydroxybutyrate-co-3-hydroxyvalerate)

    Explanation

    PHBV, poly(3-hydroxybutyrate-co-3-hydroxyvalerate), is a biodegradable aliphatic polyester.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect expansion.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect expansion.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: PHBV is a copolymer of 3-hydroxybutyric and 3-hydroxyvaleric acids.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect expansion.

  139. Q139Open question

    Hormones are secreted by:

    1. Sebaceous glands
    2. Reproductive glands
    3. Exocrine glands
    4. Endocrine glands
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Endocrine glands

    Explanation

    Hormones are chemical messengers secreted by ductless (endocrine) glands into the bloodstream.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: they secrete sebum, not hormones.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: gonads do secrete hormones, but the general answer is endocrine glands.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: exocrine glands release secretions through ducts.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: ductless endocrine glands release hormones directly into the blood.

  140. Q140Open question

    Which one of the following terms characterises the interaction between the herpes simplex virus and a human?

    1. Parasitism
    2. Symbiosis
    3. Endosymbiosis
    4. Endoparasitism
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Parasitism

    Explanation

    HSV replicates in human cells and causes disease: a parasitic (+/−) relationship.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the virus benefits and the human host is harmed.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: symbiosis implies mutual benefit.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: endosymbiosis is mutually beneficial (e.g. mitochondria origin).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a subtype; the standard term for this interaction is parasitism.

  141. Q141Open question

    Which class of immunoglobulin is the first to be produced in response to an infection?

    1. IgG
    2. IgA
    3. IgM
    4. IgE
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) IgM

    Explanation

    IgM appears first after exposure; IgG follows and gives long-term protection.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: IgG dominates later (secondary) responses.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: IgA protects mucosal surfaces.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: IgM (a pentamer) is the first antibody made in a primary response.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: IgE is involved in allergy and parasites.

  142. Q142Open question

    Biological membranes are composed of:

    1. Lipids and proteins in varying combinations specific to each species, cell type and organelle
    2. Lipids only
    3. Proteins only
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Lipids and proteins in varying combinations specific to each species, cell type and organelle

    Explanation

    Membranes are lipid–protein assemblies (with some carbohydrate) whose ratio differs between cell types.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the fluid mosaic model: a lipid bilayer with proteins, varying by cell type.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: membranes also contain proteins.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: membranes also contain lipids.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: option A is correct.

  143. Q143Open question

    Which of the following is a nonsense codon?

    1. UAA
    2. AUG
    3. UUU
    4. UGC
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) UAA

    Explanation

    The nonsense (stop) codons are UAA, UAG and UGA.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: UAA (ochre) is a stop codon.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: AUG is the start codon (methionine).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: UUU codes for phenylalanine.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: UGC codes for cysteine.

  144. Q144Open question

    Species which are in danger of extinction are known as:

    1. Vulnerable
    2. Rare
    3. Endangered
    4. Extinct
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Endangered

    Explanation

    IUCN's 'Endangered' category covers species facing a very high risk of extinction in the wild.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: vulnerable species face a high (not immediate) risk.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: rare means small populations, not necessarily endangered.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: endangered species are in danger of extinction.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: extinct species no longer exist.

  145. Q145Open question

    Which of the following is a Kharif crop?

    1. Sugarcane
    2. Barley
    3. Gram
    4. Wheat
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Sugarcane

    Explanation

    Barley, gram and wheat are winter (rabi) crops; sugarcane is grown through the monsoon season.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: among these, sugarcane is grown through the monsoon and classed with kharif crops; the rest are rabi.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: barley is a rabi crop.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: gram is a rabi crop.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: wheat is a rabi crop.

  146. Q146Open question

    Xylem in plants is responsible for which function?

    1. Transport of water and dissolved minerals
    2. Transport of food
    3. Transport of oxygen and other gases
    4. Transport of essential amino acids
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Transport of water and dissolved minerals

    Explanation

    Xylem conducts water and minerals; phloem conducts food.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: xylem carries water and minerals from roots upward.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: food is carried by phloem.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: gases diffuse through stomata and lenticels.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: organic solutes move in phloem.

  147. Q147Open question

    Who was the first to use the characteristics of vascular tissues in the classification of plants?

    1. Engler and Prantl
    2. Bentham and Hooker
    3. A.P. de Candolle
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A.P. de Candolle

    Explanation

    A.P. de Candolle (who coined 'taxonomy') first used the presence or absence of vascular tissue to classify plants.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: their phylogenetic system came later.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: their natural system did not first use vascular tissue.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: de Candolle divided plants into vascular and cellular groups.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only de Candolle fits.

  148. Q148Open question

    The part of the mango that we eat is the:

    1. Epicarp
    2. Mesocarp
    3. Endocarp
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Mesocarp

    Explanation

    Mango is a drupe; we eat its fleshy mesocarp.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the epicarp is the skin.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the fleshy, juicy mesocarp is the edible part.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: the endocarp is the hard stone.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: option B is correct.

  149. Q149Open question

    Ozone Day is celebrated on:

    1. 16 September
    2. 5 June
    3. 21 April
    4. 5 December
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 16 September

    Explanation

    International Day for the Preservation of the Ozone Layer is 16 September.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the Montreal Protocol was signed on 16 Sept 1987.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: 5 June is World Environment Day.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 21 April is Civil Services Day.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 5 December is World Soil Day.

  150. Q150Open question

    In a mycorrhizal association, the advantage to the plant is:

    1. Protection
    2. Food
    3. Both (A) and (B)
    4. Increased mineral absorption and disease protection
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Increased mineral absorption and disease protection

    Explanation

    Mycorrhiza is a mutualism: the fungus aids mineral (especially P) uptake and root protection; the plant supplies carbohydrates.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: partly true, but mineral uptake is the main benefit.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: the plant gives sugars to the fungus, not the reverse.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: food is not the plant's gain.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the fungus boosts phosphorus/water uptake and protects roots from pathogens.

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