1. Q1Open question

    Which of the following technologies will be enabled by 5G mobile communication networks? 1. Internet of Things 2. Edge Computing 3. Network Slicing

    1. Only 1 and 2
    2. Only 2 and 3
    3. Only 1 and 3
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    5G enables massive IoT, low-latency edge computing and virtual network slices for different services.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: network slicing is also a core 5G feature.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: IoT at massive scale is also enabled.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: edge computing is also enabled.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: 5G's low latency and capacity support IoT, edge computing and network slicing.

  2. Q2Open question

    Match List-I (Space Mission) with List-II (Exploration): a. Cassini-Huygens b. Juno c. Artemis d. VERITAS 1. Jupiter 2. Saturn and its rings 3. Venus 4. Human spaceflight – Moon to Mars

    1. a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
    2. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
    3. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
    4. a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

    Explanation

    Cassini-Huygens (Saturn), Juno (Jupiter), Artemis (crewed Moon-to-Mars programme), VERITAS (Venus).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Cassini-Huygens studied Saturn.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Cassini–Saturn, Juno–Jupiter, Artemis–Moon to Mars, VERITAS–Venus.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Artemis is the Moon programme, not Venus.

  3. Q3Open question

    Match List-I (Cloth/Fibre) with List-II (Origin): a. Linen b. Coir c. Mohair d. Down 1. Coconut plant 2. Flax plant 3. Feathers of duck and geese 4. Angora goat

    1. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
    2. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-2
    3. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
    4. a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

    Explanation

    Linen is woven from flax; coir from coconut husk; mohair from Angora goat hair; down is soft under-feathers of ducks and geese.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: linen–flax, coir–coconut, mohair–Angora goat, down–duck/geese feathers.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: linen comes from flax, not feathers.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: coir comes from coconut husk.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

  4. Q4Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Taeniasis is an intestinal infection caused by three species of tapeworm – Taenia solium, Taenia saginata and Taenia asiatica. 2. When cysts develop in the brain, the condition is referred to as neurocysticercosis (NCC). Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Taeniasis is caused by three Taenia species; T. solium larval cysts in the brain cause neurocysticercosis, a leading cause of epilepsy.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is also correct.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is also correct.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: both match the WHO description of taeniasis and NCC.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: both statements are correct.

  5. Q5Open question

    Which of the following are computer languages? 1. Cobra 2. Python 3. Squirrel 4. Java

    1. Only 1 and 2
    2. Only 3 and 4
    3. Only 1, 2 and 3
    4. All of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) All of the above

    Explanation

    All four, despite animal names, are programming languages (Squirrel is a lightweight scripting language).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Squirrel and Java are also programming languages.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Cobra and Python are also programming languages.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Java is also a programming language.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Cobra, Python, Squirrel and Java are all programming languages.

  6. Q6Open question

    What is the full form of GPT in ChatGPT, recently seen in the news?

    1. Glutamic Pyruvic Transaminase
    2. GUID Partition Table
    3. Grooved Pegboard Test
    4. Generative Pre-trained Transformer
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Generative Pre-trained Transformer

    Explanation

    ChatGPT (OpenAI) is built on the Generative Pre-trained Transformer family of language models.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is a liver enzyme (SGPT).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is a disk-partitioning standard.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a dexterity test.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: GPT stands for Generative Pre-trained Transformer.

  7. Q7Open question

    Which of the following are NOT tastes of the tongue? 1. Sweet 2. Bitter 3. Salty 4. Spicy 5. Umami 6. Sour 7. Pungent

    1. 2, 5 and 7
    2. 1, 3 and 4
    3. 4 and 7
    4. 3 and 6
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 4 and 7

    Explanation

    The five basic tastes are sweet, sour, salty, bitter and umami; spicy/pungent is sensed by pain receptors.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: bitter and umami are basic tastes.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: sweet and salty are basic tastes.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: spiciness and pungency are pain/heat sensations, not tastes.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: salty and sour are basic tastes.

  8. Q8Open question

    Which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Anorexia : Sleep disorder 2. Insomnia : Eating disorder 3. Dyspnoea : Shortness of breath 4. Anosmia : Partial or full loss of smell

    1. Only 1 and 2
    2. Only 2 and 3
    3. Only 3 and 4
    4. All of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only 3 and 4

    Explanation

    Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder and insomnia a sleep disorder, so only pairs 3 and 4 are correct.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: these two are swapped: anorexia is an eating disorder, insomnia a sleep disorder.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: pair 2 is wrong.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: dyspnoea is breathlessness; anosmia is loss of smell.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: pairs 1 and 2 are wrong.

  9. Q9Open question

    In the universe, what are pulsars?

    1. A group of stars
    2. Rotating neutron stars
    3. Explosion of a star
    4. Radio waves emitted by a star
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Rotating neutron stars

    Explanation

    Pulsars are neutron stars whose beams sweep past Earth like a lighthouse, producing regular pulses.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: that is a cluster.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: pulsars are rapidly spinning, highly magnetised neutron stars emitting beams.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: that is a supernova.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: pulsars emit such waves, but they are the stars themselves.

  10. Q10Open question

    In the context of lab-grown diamonds (LGDs), what is used as the starting carbon material ('seed')?

    1. White sapphire
    2. Moissanite
    3. Graphite
    4. Cubic zirconia (CZ)
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Graphite

    Explanation

    Lab-grown diamonds must start from carbon; in the HPHT method graphite is the carbon source (CVD uses a thin diamond seed plate with methane).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: aluminium oxide; contains no carbon.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: silicon carbide; a diamond simulant.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: graphite, a form of carbon, is converted to diamond under high pressure and temperature.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: zirconium dioxide; a diamond simulant.

  11. Q11Open question

    What is the fibre used to make bulletproof jackets?

    1. Nylon
    2. Terylene
    3. Tweed
    4. Kevlar
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Kevlar

    Explanation

    Kevlar (DuPont) is a para-aramid fibre about five times stronger than steel by weight.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not strong enough to stop bullets.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a polyester for clothing.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a woollen fabric.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Kevlar, an aramid fibre, has very high tensile strength.

  12. Q12Open question

    What is/are the full form(s) of HMX? 1. High Melting Explosive 2. High-Density Monoatomic Xenon 3. Hedge Monetizing Xeno-currency 4. Her Majesty's Explosive

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. Only 1
    4. 1 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1 and 4

    Explanation

    HMX is a powerful nitroamine explosive; its acronym is variously expanded as High Melting eXplosive or Her Majesty's eXplosive.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: 2 is not an expansion of HMX.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: neither is an expansion of HMX.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 'Her Majesty's Explosive' is also used.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: HMX (octogen) is called High Melting Explosive or Her Majesty's Explosive.

  13. Q13Open question

    What is the name of Tesla's humanoid robot unveiled in 2022?

    1. Sophia
    2. Atlas
    3. Pepper
    4. Optimus
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Optimus

    Explanation

    Tesla showed its Optimus humanoid prototype at AI Day in 2022.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Sophia is by Hanson Robotics.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Atlas is by Boston Dynamics.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Pepper is by SoftBank.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Tesla's humanoid robot is Optimus.

  14. Q14Open question

    What was the 'Manhattan Project'?

    1. A research and development undertaking that produced the first nuclear weapons
    2. One of the largest art auctions of the world
    3. A real estate project in New York City
    4. A famous theme park
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) A research and development undertaking that produced the first nuclear weapons

    Explanation

    The Manhattan Project (1942–46), led by Oppenheimer at Los Alamos, produced the atomic bombs used in 1945.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the WWII US-led programme that built the first atomic bombs.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

  15. Q15Open question

    The image formed by a concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as the object. The position of the object should be:

    1. at the focus
    2. at the centre of curvature
    3. between the focus and centre of curvature
    4. beyond the centre of curvature
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) at the centre of curvature

    Explanation

    For a concave mirror, an object at C (2f) forms a real, inverted, same-size image at C.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: image forms at infinity.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: object at C gives a same-size, real, inverted image at C.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: image is enlarged beyond C.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: image is diminished between F and C.

  16. Q16Open question

    A photoelectric cell is a device which:

    1. converts light energy into electrical energy
    2. converts electrical energy into light energy
    3. stores light energy
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) converts light energy into electrical energy

    Explanation

    Photoelectric cells convert incident light into electric current (used in sensors, automatic doors, solar cells).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: it uses the photoelectric effect to produce current from light.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: that is a bulb/LED.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: it does not store energy.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: option A is correct.

  17. Q17Open question

    In chemistry, the amount of solute present per unit volume or per unit mass of the solution/solvent is known as:

    1. composition of solute
    2. concentration of solvent
    3. concentration of solute
    4. concentration of solution
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) concentration of solution

    Explanation

    NCERT defines the concentration of a solution as the amount of solute in a given amount of solution or solvent.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the standard term.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: it measures solute, not solvent.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: the standard term is the concentration of the solution.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: concentration of a solution = amount of solute per unit volume/mass.

  18. Q18Open question

    How do COVID vaccines stimulate an immune response?

    1. By introducing live attenuated SARS-CoV-2 virus
    2. By introducing real SARS-CoV-2 virus
    3. By introducing a harmless piece of SARS-CoV-2 virus
    4. By introducing antibodies against SARS-CoV-2 virus
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) By introducing a harmless piece of SARS-CoV-2 virus

    Explanation

    Vaccines (mRNA, vector, protein, inactivated) expose the body to harmless viral parts so it makes its own antibodies.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: most approved COVID vaccines are not live-attenuated.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: unsafe; not how vaccines work.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: they present a harmless antigen (e.g. spike protein or its code) to train immunity.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: that is passive immunisation, not vaccination.

  19. Q19Open question

    Which of the following liquids is a bad conductor of electricity?

    1. Salted water
    2. Orange juice
    3. Lemon juice
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None of the above

    Explanation

    Solutions of salts and acids are electrolytes and conduct electricity; none of the listed liquids is a bad conductor.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: dissolved ions make it a good conductor.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: its acids/ions let it conduct.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: citric acid makes it conduct.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: all three contain ions and conduct electricity.

  20. Q20Open question

    The double-helix structure of DNA was discovered by:

    1. James Watson and Francis Crick
    2. Rosalind Franklin and Maurice Wilkins
    3. Linus Pauling
    4. Gregor Mendel
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) James Watson and Francis Crick

    Explanation

    Watson and Crick published the DNA double-helix model in Nature in 1953, using Franklin's X-ray images.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: they proposed the double-helix model in 1953.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: their X-ray data were key, but the model was Watson and Crick's.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: he proposed an incorrect triple helix.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: father of genetics; did not study DNA.

  21. Q21Open question

    Two objects of different masses falling freely near the surface of the Moon would:

    1. have different accelerations
    2. undergo a change in their inertia
    3. have the same velocity at any instant
    4. experience forces of the same magnitude
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) have the same velocity at any instant

    Explanation

    On the airless Moon all bodies fall with the same acceleration (~1.62 m/s²), so released together they have equal velocities.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: free-fall acceleration is independent of mass.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: inertia depends on mass, which does not change.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: with no air and equal acceleration, their velocities stay equal.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: force (weight) is proportional to mass, so differs.

  22. Q22Open question

    How do vector vaccines work to provide immunity?

    1. By introducing a weakened or inactivated virus into the body
    2. By directly attacking and destroying pathogens in the body
    3. By placing the virus's genetic material in a modified version of a different virus
    4. By entering directly into cells and enabling them to create spike proteins
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) By placing the virus's genetic material in a modified version of a different virus

    Explanation

    Viral-vector vaccines (e.g. Covishield) use a modified adenovirus to deliver the spike-protein gene.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: that describes attenuated/inactivated vaccines.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: vaccines do not attack pathogens directly.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: a harmless 'vector' virus carries the target gene into cells.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: that describes mRNA vaccines.

  23. Q23Open question

    The process that continually adds new crust is:

    1. subduction
    2. earthquake
    3. seafloor spreading
    4. convection
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) seafloor spreading

    Explanation

    At divergent mid-ocean ridges, seafloor spreading continuously creates new crust (Harry Hess).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: subduction destroys crust.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: earthquakes do not create crust.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: magma rising at mid-ocean ridges forms new oceanic crust.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: convection drives plates but does not itself add crust.

  24. Q24Open question

    The theory that states 'pieces of the Earth's crust are in constant, slow motion driven by movement in the mantle' is called:

    1. the theory of continental drift
    2. the theory of Pangaea
    3. the theory of plate tectonics
    4. the theory of plate boundaries
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) the theory of plate tectonics

    Explanation

    Plate tectonics (1960s) describes rigid plates moving over the asthenosphere, driven by mantle convection.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Wegener's theory lacked a mantle-driven mechanism.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Pangaea is a supercontinent, not a theory of motion.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: plate tectonics explains lithospheric plates moving over the mantle.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a recognised theory.

  25. Q25Open question

    What is the expanded form of 'mRNA', widely discussed since the beginning of the pandemic?

    1. Messenger Ribonucleic Acid
    2. Mutant Ribonucleic Acid
    3. Modified Ribonucleic Acid
    4. Mnemonic Ribonucleic Acid
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Messenger Ribonucleic Acid

    Explanation

    mRNA vaccines (Pfizer, Moderna) deliver messenger RNA that tells cells to make the spike protein.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: mRNA carries genetic instructions from DNA to ribosomes.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect.

  26. Q26Open question

    An AC current can be produced by:

    1. choke coil
    2. dynamo
    3. transformer
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) dynamo

    Explanation

    A rotating coil in a magnetic field (dynamo/generator) induces alternating current.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: a choke limits AC; it does not generate it.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: an AC dynamo (generator) produces alternating current by electromagnetic induction.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a transformer only changes AC voltage.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a dynamo produces AC.

  27. Q27Open question

    Current density is:

    1. a scalar quantity
    2. a vector quantity
    3. dimensionless
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) a vector quantity

    Explanation

    Current density J = I/A points in the direction of positive charge flow, so it is a vector.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: current is scalar, but current density has direction.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: current density J has magnitude and direction (A/m²).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: it has units of A/m².

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: it is a vector.

  28. Q28Open question

    What is the basis of the most useful classification of medicines for medicinal chemists?

    1. Pharmacological effect
    2. Molecular targets
    3. Chemical structure
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Molecular targets

    Explanation

    Drugs that act on the same biomolecular target (enzyme, receptor) often share structure, making this basis most useful.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: useful to doctors, but not the most useful for chemists.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: NCERT notes classification by molecular targets is most useful to medicinal chemists.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: similar structures can have different actions.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: molecular targets is correct.

  29. Q29Open question

    Which of the following slows down the rate of a reaction?

    1. Catalytic promoter
    2. Homogeneous catalyst
    3. Heterogeneous catalyst
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None of the above

    Explanation

    Reactions are slowed by inhibitors (negative catalysts or poisons), not by promoters or ordinary catalysts.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: promoters increase catalyst activity.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: catalysts generally speed up reactions.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: catalysts generally speed up reactions.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: only inhibitors/negative catalysts slow reactions, and none is listed.

  30. Q30Open question

    Input (sensory) and output (motor) nerves meet at the:

    1. liver
    2. central nervous system
    3. heart
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) central nervous system

    Explanation

    Sensory neurons carry signals to the CNS; motor neurons carry responses from it (e.g. reflex arc via spinal cord).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a nervous organ.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the brain and spinal cord integrate sensory input and motor output.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a nervous organ.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: the CNS is correct.

  31. Q31Open question

    In the context of 'shipwreck tourism', shipwrecks in Indian waters have been explored at Sunchi Reef, Amee Shoals and Grande Island. Where are these locations?

    1. Off the coast of Goa
    2. Off the coast of Lakshadweep
    3. Off the coast of Tamil Nadu
    4. Off the coast of Odisha
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Off the coast of Goa

    Explanation

    Goa's Grande Island, Sunchi Reef and Amee Shoals are known wreck-diving sites.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: these wreck sites lie off Goa (near Mormugao/Vasco).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not these sites.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not these sites.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not these sites.

  32. Q32Open question

    The G20 members represent: 1. around 85% of global GDP 2. about 50% of global trade 3. about two-thirds of the world population Which of the above statistics is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 1 and 3
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. Only 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Only 1 and 3

    Explanation

    G20: about 85% of world GDP, over 75% of trade and about two-thirds of the population.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 3 is also correct.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: G20 has ~85% of GDP and ~two-thirds of population; trade share is ~75%, not 50%.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 understates trade (~75%).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is wrong.

  33. Q33Open question

    Who was the head of Russia's Wagner mercenary group?

    1. Sergei Shoigu
    2. Yevgeny Prigozhin
    3. Aleksandr Lukashenko
    4. Volodymyr Zelenskyy
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Yevgeny Prigozhin

    Explanation

    Yevgeny Prigozhin headed the Wagner Group; he died in a plane crash in August 2023.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: he was Russia's Defence Minister.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Prigozhin led Wagner and staged a mutiny in June 2023.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: President of Belarus.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: President of Ukraine.

  34. Q34Open question

    The Global Gender Gap Report is released by:

    1. the World Bank
    2. UN Women
    3. the World Economic Forum
    4. the UNDP
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) the World Economic Forum

    Explanation

    The World Economic Forum's Global Gender Gap Report ranks countries on economic, education, health and political parity.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the publisher.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the publisher.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the WEF publishes it annually since 2006.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: UNDP publishes the Gender Inequality Index, not this report.

  35. Q35Open question

    Which one of the following statements regarding Queen Elizabeth II of the United Kingdom is correct?

    1. She reigned for 70 years and died at the age of 96.
    2. She reigned for 68 years and died at the age of 94.
    3. She reigned for 72 years and died at the age of 92.
    4. She reigned for 66 years and died at the age of 90.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) She reigned for 70 years and died at the age of 96.

    Explanation

    Elizabeth II, Britain's longest-reigning monarch, ruled for 70 years and died on 8 September 2022 aged 96.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: she reigned 1952–2022 and died aged 96.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: both figures are wrong.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: both figures are wrong.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: both figures are wrong.

  36. Q36Open question

    What was the theme of DefExpo 2022, held in Gujarat?

    1. India: The Emerging Defence Manufacturing Hub
    2. Path to Pride
    3. Synergy for Defence
    4. Aatmanirbharta
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Path to Pride

    Explanation

    DefExpo 2022 at Gandhinagar (October 2022) was themed 'Path to Pride' and showcased Indian firms only.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: this was the DefExpo 2020 theme.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: DefExpo 2022 (Gandhinagar) had the theme 'Path to Pride'.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the theme.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the official theme.

  37. Q37Open question

    The three-day Thadingyut festival is celebrated in which country?

    1. Chile
    2. Nepal
    3. Germany
    4. Myanmar
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Myanmar

    Explanation

    Thadingyut marks the end of the Buddhist Lent (Vassa) in Myanmar with lamps and lights.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not celebrated there.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a Nepali festival.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not celebrated there.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Thadingyut is Myanmar's Festival of Lights, ending Buddhist Lent.

  38. Q38Open question

    Consider the following statements regarding the White House: 1. Its address is 1800 Pennsylvania Avenue. 2. It is the official residence and workplace of the President of the USA. 3. On 1 November 1800, John Adams became the first President to take residence in the building. 4. It is a symbol of American democracy. Which of the above statements are correct?

    1. 1, 3 and 4
    2. Only 2 and 3
    3. Only 3 and 4
    4. 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 2, 3 and 4

    Explanation

    The White House is at 1600 Pennsylvania Avenue NW, Washington D.C.; John Adams first moved in on 1 Nov 1800.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the address is 1600, not 1800.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 4 is also correct.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is also correct.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: only the address (1600 Pennsylvania Ave) is wrong.

  39. Q39Open question

    'Net metering' is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting:

    1. the installation of CNG kits in motor cars
    2. the installation of water meters in urban households
    3. a billing mechanism crediting solar energy consumers for electricity they add to the grid
    4. the use of piped natural gas in household kitchens
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) a billing mechanism crediting solar energy consumers for electricity they add to the grid

    Explanation

    Under net metering, consumers pay only for net consumption (imports minus solar exports).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: net metering credits rooftop-solar users for power exported to the grid.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

  40. Q40Open question

    Match List-I (Colour) with List-II (Combination): a. Magenta b. Teal c. Mauve d. Cyan 1. Green and blue 2. Red and blue 3. Blue, green and white 4. Blue, red and white

    1. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
    2. a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
    3. a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
    4. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1

    Explanation

    In additive mixing red + blue = magenta and green + blue = cyan; teal and mauve are tinted versions.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: magenta = red + blue; teal = blue-green with white; mauve = pale red-blue; cyan = green + blue.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: teal and mauve are swapped.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: magenta is red + blue.

  41. Q41Open question

    What is the name of the deep-sea submersible that imploded during a voyage to the Titanic wreck?

    1. Alvin
    2. Falcon
    3. Trident
    4. Titan
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Titan

    Explanation

    OceanGate's Titan submersible imploded near the Titanic wreck in the North Atlantic in June 2023.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Alvin is a US research submersible still in service.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the vessel.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the vessel.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: OceanGate's Titan imploded in June 2023, killing all five aboard.

  42. Q42Open question

    Match List-I (Footwear/Fashion Accessory) with List-II (Description): a. Beret b. Stilettos c. Aviators d. Chignon e. Brogue 1. A type of men's footwear 2. A type of sunglasses 3. A type of hat 4. A type of women's footwear 5. A type of hairstyle

    1. a-3, b-1, c-4, d-5, e-2
    2. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-5, e-1
    3. a-5, b-3, c-2, d-4, e-1
    4. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4, e-5
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-5, e-1

    Explanation

    Beret (hat), stilettos (high-heeled women's shoes), aviators (sunglasses), chignon (bun hairstyle), brogue (men's shoe).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: stilettos are women's footwear.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: beret–hat, stilettos–women's footwear, aviators–sunglasses, chignon–hairstyle, brogue–men's footwear.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: beret is a hat.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

  43. Q43Open question

    Where did former US President Barack Obama give his much-discussed interview (to CNN, June 2023)?

    1. Rome
    2. Sarajevo
    3. Athens
    4. Amsterdam
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Athens

    Explanation

    The June 2023 Obama–Amanpour interview, in which he commented on minority rights in India, was recorded in Athens.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the venue.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the venue.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Obama spoke to Christiane Amanpour in Athens, Greece.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the venue.

  44. Q44Open question

    In the context of sports, which of the following pairs are correctly matched? 1. Flushing Meadows : French Open 2. Venus Rosewater Dish : Wimbledon Trophy (Women) 3. Roland Garros : US Open 4. Australian Open (Women) : Daphne Akhurst Memorial Cup

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 3 and 4
    4. 2 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 2 and 4

    Explanation

    Pairs 1 and 3 are swapped: Flushing Meadows = US Open; Roland Garros = French Open.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Flushing Meadows hosts the US Open.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Roland Garros hosts the French Open.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: pair 3 is wrong.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Venus Rosewater Dish (Wimbledon women) and Daphne Akhurst Cup (Australian Open women) are correct.

  45. Q45Open question

    The Ministry of Home Affairs completed the Mother Tongue Survey of India (MTSI) in November 2022 with field videography of how many of the country's languages?

    1. 40
    2. 233
    3. 576
    4. 984
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 576

    Explanation

    The MHA's annual report noted MTSI had video-recorded 576 mother tongues for preservation.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: too few.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the figure.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: MTSI completed videography of 576 languages/mother tongues.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: too many.

  46. Q46Open question

    Which state government set up a State-Level Committee for Vulture Conservation, as proposed by the national action plan for vultures?

    1. Tamil Nadu
    2. Sikkim
    3. Assam
    4. Meghalaya
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Tamil Nadu

    Explanation

    Tamil Nadu constituted the committee in 2022 under the Vulture Action Plan 2020–25.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Tamil Nadu formed a state-level vulture conservation committee in 2022.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the state in the news.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the state in the news.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the state in the news.

  47. Q47Open question

    Ten captive-bred Asian Giant Tortoises (Manouria emys) were recently released into which National Park?

    1. Ntangki National Park
    2. Periyar National Park
    3. Pench National Park
    4. Khangchendzonga National Park
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Ntangki National Park

    Explanation

    Asian giant tortoises bred at Nagaland Zoological Park were rewilded in Ntangki National Park.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: they were released in Ntangki, Nagaland.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this release.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this release.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this release.

  48. Q48Open question

    Which country recently reaffirmed Arunachal Pradesh as an integral part of India?

    1. USA
    2. Australia
    3. Germany
    4. Russia
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) USA

    Explanation

    In 2023 a bipartisan US Senate resolution recognised the McMahon Line and Arunachal Pradesh as Indian territory.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: a US Senate resolution (2023) recognised Arunachal as part of India.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the country in the news.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the country in the news.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the country in the news.

  49. Q49Open question

    India's Rudrankksh Balasaheb Patil won which medal in the men's 10 m air rifle at the ISSF World Championship in Cairo?

    1. Gold
    2. Silver
    3. Bronze
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Gold

    Explanation

    Rudrankksh Patil became world champion in men's 10 m air rifle at Cairo (October 2022).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: he won gold (2022) and a Paris 2024 quota.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: he won gold.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: he won gold.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: he won gold.

  50. Q50Open question

    The National Education Policy, 2020 emphasises integrating vocational education into mainstream education from which grade onwards?

    1. Grade 6
    2. Grade 8
    3. Grade 10
    4. Grade 12
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Grade 6

    Explanation

    NEP 2020 proposes vocational exposure from Grade 6, including a 10-day bagless internship period.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: NEP introduces vocational education from Grade 6 with internships.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: it starts earlier.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: it starts earlier.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: it starts earlier.

  51. Q51Open question

    India signed the Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) with which country?

    1. UAE
    2. Australia
    3. USA
    4. UK
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Australia

    Explanation

    The India–Australia ECTA came into force on 29 December 2022.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: India signed a CEPA, not an ECTA, with the UAE.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the India–Australia ECTA was signed in April 2022.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: no ECTA with the USA.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: the India–UK deal is a CETA/FTA, not ECTA.

  52. Q52Open question

    The Plain Language Act, requiring officials to use simple, easily understood English in official documents and websites, was recently passed by which country?

    1. Australia
    2. Ireland
    3. New Zealand
    4. Germany
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) New Zealand

    Explanation

    New Zealand's Plain Language Act 2022 requires public agencies to communicate clearly.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this Act.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this Act.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: New Zealand passed the Plain Language Act in October 2022.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not an English-language law.

  53. Q53Open question

    Fossils of Tillyardembiids, among the world's earliest plant pollinators, were recently discovered in which country?

    1. Greece
    2. India
    3. Russia
    4. China
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Russia

    Explanation

    Permian insects called Tillyardembiids, found in Russia's Urals, carried pollen on their bodies.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the discovery site.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the discovery site.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the 280-million-year-old fossils were found in the Ural region of Russia.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the discovery site.

  54. Q54Open question

    The 'Lisbon Declaration', which made headlines, is associated with the conservation of which entity?

    1. Air
    2. Mountains
    3. Oceans
    4. Freshwater glaciers
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Oceans

    Explanation

    The 2022 UN Ocean Conference in Lisbon adopted the declaration 'Our Ocean, Our Future, Our Responsibility'.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: adopted at the UN Ocean Conference, Lisbon (2022).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

  55. Q55Open question

    Which of the following animals was not known to the people of the Indus Valley Civilisation?

    1. Bull
    2. Horse
    3. Elephant
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Horse

    Explanation

    The horse is largely absent from Harappan evidence (Surkotada remains are debated), unlike bulls, elephants and rhinos.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the humped bull is common on seals.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: there is no clear evidence of the horse in Harappan culture.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: elephants appear on seals.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: the horse was not known.

  56. Q56Open question

    Which of the following is not a UNESCO World Heritage Site?

    1. Qutb Minar
    2. Red Fort
    3. India Gate
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) India Gate

    Explanation

    Delhi's World Heritage Sites are Qutb Minar complex, Humayun's Tomb and Red Fort complex.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: a World Heritage Site (1993).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a World Heritage Site (2007).

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: India Gate is not on the UNESCO list.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: India Gate is not a WHS.

  57. Q57Open question

    The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy in the Indian Constitution was borrowed from the Constitution of:

    1. England
    2. Switzerland
    3. Ireland
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Ireland

    Explanation

    Ireland also inspired the nomination of Rajya Sabha members and the method of electing the President.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the UK gave parliamentary government.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the source.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: DPSPs are modelled on the Irish Constitution (1937).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Ireland is correct.

  58. Q58Open question

    Sikkim became a full-fledged State of the Indian Union in:

    1. 1974
    2. 1975
    3. 1976
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1975

    Explanation

    After a 1975 referendum, the 36th Amendment admitted Sikkim as a full state.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: it became an associate state in 1974.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the 36th Amendment made Sikkim the 22nd state on 16 May 1975.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: too late.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 1975 is correct.

  59. Q59Open question

    Which of the following currencies is the costliest (highest value)?

    1. Euro
    2. Pound Sterling
    3. US Dollar
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Pound Sterling

    Explanation

    Among the options, the British pound has the highest exchange value (globally, the Kuwaiti dinar is the costliest).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: worth less than the pound.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: among these, the pound has the highest value per unit.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: worth less than the pound and euro.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: the pound is the costliest of the options.

  60. Q60Open question

    The Bihar Government planned to make the state 'pollution-free' by reducing carbon emissions by which year?

    1. 2022
    2. 2024
    3. 2030
    4. 2047
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 2047

    Explanation

    Bihar's climate-resilient, low-carbon strategy (prepared with UNEP in 2023) sets a long-term horizon for zero emissions; of the options given, 2047 is the matching year. (The state's net-zero target is also cited as 2070.)

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: already past at the time.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: too near-term.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the stated target year.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the long-term horizon cited for the goal among these options.

  61. Q61Open question

    In Indian art, the construction of 'Stupa', 'Chaitya' and 'Vihara' is related to:

    1. Ajivika sect
    2. Vaishnava sect
    3. Buddhism
    4. Shaiva sect
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Buddhism

    Explanation

    Buddhist architecture: stupa (relic mound), chaitya (prayer hall), vihara (monks' residence).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Ajivikas used rock-cut caves (Barabar) but not this trio.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Vaishnavas built temples.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: stupas (relics), chaityas (prayer halls) and viharas (monasteries) are Buddhist.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Shaivas built temples.

  62. Q62Open question

    In the context of Indian handicrafts, what is 'Sujini' of Bihar?

    1. A type of glassware
    2. A metal craft
    3. A type of embroidery
    4. A type of clay pottery
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) A type of embroidery

    Explanation

    Sujini embroidery (Bhusura, Muzaffarpur) is made by women on layered cloth and holds a GI tag.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not glassware.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not metal craft.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Sujini is GI-tagged running-stitch embroidery from Muzaffarpur.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not pottery.

  63. Q63Open question

    Consider the following statements regarding Vikramshila University in Bihar: 1. It was located in present-day Banka district. 2. It was established by King Gopala I of the Pala dynasty. 3. The Vajrayana sect of Buddhism flourished here. 4. Subjects like law, astronomy, logic, grammar and philosophy were also taught here. Which of the above statements are incorrect?

    1. 2 and 3
    2. 1 and 4
    3. 1 and 2
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Vikramshila (Antichak, Bhagalpur) was founded by Pala king Dharmapala (c. 8th–9th century) and was a centre of Vajrayana.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 3 is correct.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 4 is correct.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: it was in Bhagalpur district and founded by Dharmapala, not Gopala.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 1 and 2 are incorrect.

  64. Q64Open question

    Consider the following statements. The arrival of Babur in India led to the: 1. introduction of gunpowder in the subcontinent 2. introduction of arch and dome in the region's architecture 3. establishment of the Timurid (Mughal) dynasty in the region 4. introduction of cannons in warfare Which of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only 1 and 2
    2. 1, 2 and 3
    3. 3 and 4
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 3 and 4

    Explanation

    True arches and domes predate Babur (Sultanate era); his lasting impacts were the Mughal dynasty and effective use of cannon.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: arch and dome came with the Delhi Sultanate; gunpowder was known earlier.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is wrong.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Babur founded the Mughal (Timurid) dynasty and used field artillery at Panipat (1526).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 3 and 4 are correct.

  65. Q65Open question

    Which port was called 'Bab-ul-Makka' (Gate of Mecca) during the Mughal period?

    1. Calicut
    2. Surat
    3. Cambay
    4. Broach
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Surat

    Explanation

    Pilgrim ships to Mecca sailed from Surat, giving it the name Bab-ul-Makka.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not called so.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Surat was the main port for Haj pilgrims.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not called so.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not called so.

  66. Q66Open question

    'Ashta Pradhan' was a Council of Ministers in the:

    1. Gupta administration
    2. Chola administration
    3. Maratha administration
    4. Vijayanagara administration
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Maratha administration

    Explanation

    Shivaji's Ashta Pradhan included the Peshwa, Amatya, Sachiva, Sumant and others.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not Gupta.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not Chola.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Shivaji's council of eight ministers.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not Vijayanagara.

  67. Q67Open question

    The painting of 'Bodhisattva Padmapani' is located at:

    1. Bagh
    2. Ellora
    3. Ajanta
    4. Badami
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Ajanta

    Explanation

    The Bodhisattva Padmapani in Ajanta Cave 1 is among the finest examples of ancient Indian painting.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this painting.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: known for sculpture, not this painting.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the Padmapani painting is in Ajanta Cave 1.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this painting.

  68. Q68Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Fa-Hien was a Chinese pilgrim who visited India during the reign of Harsha. 2. Hiuen Tsang was a Chinese Buddhist monk who visited India during the reign of Chandragupta II. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) None of the above

    Explanation

    Fa-Hien visited c. 399–412 CE (Chandragupta II); Hiuen Tsang visited c. 630–645 CE (Harsha).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Fa-Hien came under Chandragupta II.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Hiuen Tsang came under Harsha.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: the rulers are swapped.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: both statements swap the rulers: Fa-Hien–Chandragupta II, Hiuen Tsang–Harsha.

  69. Q69Open question

    Match List-I with List-II: a. Charaka b. Brahmagupta c. Varahamihira d. Vishakhadatta 1. Mathematics 2. Medicine 3. Playwright 4. Astrology

    1. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
    2. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
    3. a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
    4. a-1, b-4, c-3, d-2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3

    Explanation

    Charaka Samhita (medicine), Brahmasphutasiddhanta (maths), Brihat Samhita (astrology), Mudrarakshasa (Vishakhadatta's play).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Charaka–medicine, Brahmagupta–mathematics, Varahamihira–astrology, Vishakhadatta–playwright.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Charaka was a physician.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

  70. Q70Open question

    Who among the following introduced the Persian festival of Nowruz in India?

    1. Firuz Shah Tughlaq
    2. Alauddin Khilji
    3. Balban
    4. Iltutmish
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Balban

    Explanation

    Balban adopted Persian court etiquette (sijda, paibos) and celebrated Nowruz to enhance royal prestige.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not credited with this.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not credited with this.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Balban introduced Persian court customs, including Nowruz.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not credited with this.

  71. Q71Open question

    Nathpanthis, Siddhas and Yogis made devotional religion popular in:

    1. Northern India
    2. Southern India
    3. Eastern India
    4. Western India
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Northern India

    Explanation

    NCERT notes that Nathpanthis, Siddhas and Yogis criticised ritual and caste and were popular in northern India.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: these traditions spread mainly across northern India.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: the south had the Alvars and Nayanars.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not their main area.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not their main area.

  72. Q72Open question

    Consider the following statements regarding Wood's Despatch of 1854: 1. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies. 2. It laid stress on female education and vocational training. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. Only 2
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Wood's Despatch ('Magna Carta of English education') also proposed universities in Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is also correct.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is also correct.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the Despatch backed English for higher education and promoted women's and vocational education.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: both are correct.

  73. Q73Open question

    The Maithili language started to develop during the reign of which of the following?

    1. Chero dynasty
    2. Oiniwar dynasty
    3. Karnat dynasty
    4. Pithipatis
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Karnat dynasty

    Explanation

    The Karnat dynasty of Mithila (Simraun) patronised early Maithili; Jyotirishwar Thakur's Varnaratnakara (14th century) dates from Harisimhadeva's reign.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not associated with Maithili's growth.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Maithili flourished further under them (Vidyapati), but its development began earlier.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: under the Karnats, Jyotirishwar wrote Varnaratnakara, the earliest Maithili prose.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Buddhist chiefs of Bodh Gaya; not linked to Maithili.

  74. Q74Open question

    Which city served as the capital of the ancient kingdom of Magadha in the early period?

    1. Rajagriha
    2. Champa
    3. Vaishali
    4. Pataliputra
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Rajagriha

    Explanation

    Magadha's first capital was Rajagriha; Udayin later shifted it to Pataliputra.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Rajagriha (Girivraja) was Magadha's early capital.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Champa was the capital of Anga.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Vaishali was the Licchavi capital.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Pataliputra became capital later (Udayin).

  75. Q75Open question

    Which of the following statements about the Vernacular Press Act is/are correct? 1. It was enacted by Lord Lytton. 2. It came to be known as the 'Gagging Act'. 3. The Act was repealed by Lord Ripon.

    1. Only 1 and 2
    2. Only 2 and 3
    3. Only 1
    4. 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    The Vernacular Press Act, 1878 curbed Indian-language newspapers; Ripon repealed it in 1882.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 3 is also correct.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is also correct.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statements 2 and 3 are also correct.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Lytton passed it in 1878, it was called the Gagging Act, and Ripon repealed it in 1882.

  76. Q76Open question

    Which of the following statements about Lord Mayo's Resolution of 1870 are correct? 1. It was the first step that bifurcated Central and Provincial finances. 2. Provincial governments were empowered to administer certain services. 3. It attempted to rectify existing imparity. 4. It focused on the actual needs of the provinces.

    1. Only 1 and 2
    2. Only 1, 3 and 4
    3. Only 2, 3 and 4
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Explanation

    Mayo's 1870 resolution began financial decentralisation: provinces got fixed grants to run services like police, jails, education and health.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: 3 and 4 also describe the resolution's aims.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is also correct.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is also correct.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Mayo's financial decentralisation gave provinces fixed grants for services, addressing imbalance and needs.

  77. Q77Open question

    Nitisara, an early book on politics, was written by:

    1. Kautilya
    2. Kamandaka
    3. Charaka
    4. None of them
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Kamandaka

    Explanation

    Kamandakiya Nitisara, a Gupta-era work on statecraft, draws on Kautilya's Arthashastra.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Kautilya wrote the Arthashastra.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Kamandaka wrote the Nitisara (Gupta period).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Charaka wrote on medicine.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Kamandaka is correct.

  78. Q78Open question

    Futuhat-i-Alamgiri was written by:

    1. Ishwardas Nagar
    2. Bhimsen
    3. Haridas
    4. None of them
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Ishwardas Nagar

    Explanation

    Futuhat-i-Alamgiri by Ishwardas Nagar covers Aurangzeb's reign up to about 1698.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Ishwardas Nagar wrote this account of Aurangzeb's reign.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Bhimsen wrote Nuskha-i-Dilkusha.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the author.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Ishwardas Nagar is correct.

  79. Q79Open question

    According to a Chinese source, Meghavarman, the ruler of Sri Lanka, sent a mission to which Gupta king for permission to build a Buddhist monastery at Gaya?

    1. Chandragupta I
    2. Samudragupta
    3. Chandragupta II
    4. None of them
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Samudragupta

    Explanation

    Wang Xuance's account records Meghavarna's embassy to Samudragupta for the Bodh Gaya monastery.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the king approached.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Meghavarna sought Samudragupta's permission for a monastery at Bodh Gaya.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the king approached.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Samudragupta is correct.

  80. Q80Open question

    When was Bihar first separated from the Bengal Presidency in British India?

    1. 1912
    2. 1936
    3. 1947
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1912

    Explanation

    Bihar (with Orissa) was carved out of Bengal Presidency on 1 April 1912, now celebrated as Bihar Diwas.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Bihar and Orissa province was created on 1 April 1912.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: 1936 is when Orissa separated from Bihar.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Independence year.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 1912 is correct.

  81. Q81Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Lake Victoria is the third largest freshwater lake in the world by surface area. 2. It is one of the African Great Lakes. 3. It is bordered by four countries – Tanzania, Uganda, Rwanda and Kenya. 4. The only outflow from Lake Victoria is the Nile, which exits near Jinja, Uganda. Which of the above statements are incorrect?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 2 and 4
    3. 3 and 4
    4. 1 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1 and 3

    Explanation

    Lake Victoria (Tanzania, Uganda, Kenya) is the largest tropical lake and second largest freshwater lake after Lake Superior.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is correct.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: both are correct.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 4 is correct.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: it is the second largest freshwater lake, and it borders only three countries (not Rwanda).

  82. Q82Open question

    Consider the following statements regarding 'heat wave': 1. A heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature of a station reaches at least 30°C or more for plains. 2. A heat wave is considered if the maximum temperature reaches at least 40°C or more for hilly regions. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Both 1 and 2
    2. Only 1
    3. Only 2
    4. Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2

    Explanation

    IMD: heat wave if max temperature ≥ 40°C (plains), ≥ 37°C (coast) or ≥ 30°C (hills), with departure criteria.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the thresholds are swapped.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: plains need 40°C, not 30°C.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: hills need 30°C, not 40°C.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: IMD thresholds are 40°C for plains and 30°C for hills, so both are wrong.

  83. Q83Open question

    Match List-I (Explorer) with List-II (Birthplace): a. Christopher Columbus b. Jacques Cartier c. Sir Francis Drake d. Ferdinand Magellan 1. Portugal 2. United Kingdom 3. Italy 4. France

    1. a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1
    2. a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3
    3. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
    4. a-1, b-4, c-2, d-3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1

    Explanation

    Columbus (Genoa), Cartier (Saint-Malo), Drake (Devon) and Magellan (Portugal).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Columbus–Italy (Genoa), Cartier–France, Drake–England, Magellan–Portugal.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Columbus was Italian.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Drake was English, Magellan Portuguese.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Columbus and Magellan are swapped.

  84. Q84Open question

    The emirates of the UAE are:

    1. Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah
    2. Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Jeddah, Kuwait, Bahrain, Umm Al-Quwain
    3. Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah, Riyadh, Dammam, Taif, Dubai
    4. Sharjah, Abu Dhabi, Ajman, Fujairah, Dubai, Bahrain, Kuwait
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Abu Dhabi, Dubai, Sharjah, Ajman, Umm Al-Quwain, Fujairah, Ras Al-Khaimah

    Explanation

    The UAE federation (1971–72) comprises seven emirates, with Abu Dhabi as the capital.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: these are the seven emirates.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Jeddah is Saudi; Kuwait and Bahrain are countries.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Riyadh, Dammam, Taif are Saudi cities.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Bahrain and Kuwait are separate countries.

  85. Q85Open question

    The Subarnarekha river originates near which village?

    1. Ormanjhi
    2. Mandar
    3. Hehal
    4. Nagri
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Nagri

    Explanation

    Subarnarekha rises near Nagri (Ranchi), forms Hundru Falls and flows through Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the source.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the source.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the source.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: it rises near Nagri village, Ranchi (Jharkhand).

  86. Q86Open question

    Which of the following National Parks/Wildlife Sanctuaries are in Bihar? 1. Valmiki National Park 2. Dudhwa National Park 3. Gajner Wildlife Sanctuary 4. Bhimbandh Wildlife Sanctuary

    1. 1 and 4
    2. 2 and 3
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 2 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1 and 4

    Explanation

    Dudhwa (Lakhimpur Kheri, UP) and Gajner (Bikaner, Rajasthan) are outside Bihar.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Valmiki (West Champaran) and Bhimbandh (Munger) are in Bihar.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Dudhwa is in UP; Gajner is in Rajasthan.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Gajner is in Rajasthan.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Dudhwa is in UP.

  87. Q87Open question

    Consider the following statements regarding the Gangetic Dolphin: 1. It is categorised as 'Endangered' on the IUCN Red List. 2. It does not have a crystalline eye lens, rendering it effectively blind. 3. Navigation and hunting are carried out using echolocation. 4. It has been recognised as India's National Aquatic Animal. Which of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only 1, 2 and 4
    2. Only 2, 3 and 4
    3. Only 1, 3 and 4
    4. All of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) All of the above

    Explanation

    The Ganges river dolphin (Susu) is Endangered, nearly blind, uses echolocation and was declared National Aquatic Animal in 2009.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 3 is also correct.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is also correct.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is also correct.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: all four statements are correct.

  88. Q88Open question

    The other name of the river Gandak is:

    1. Burhi Gandak
    2. Mahananda
    3. Narayani
    4. Punpun
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Narayani

    Explanation

    The Gandak, a Himalayan tributary of the Ganga, is known as Narayani in Nepal and meets the Ganga near Hajipur.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: a separate river.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a separate river.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the Gandak is called Narayani (Sapt Gandaki) in Nepal.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a separate river of south Bihar.

  89. Q89Open question

    Gold is found in which of the following districts of Bihar?

    1. Munger
    2. Saran
    3. Siwan
    4. Jamui
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Jamui

    Explanation

    The GSI has identified large gold-bearing reserves in Jamui district.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the gold district.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the gold district.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the gold district.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Jamui (Sono/Karmatiya) holds Bihar's gold reserves.

  90. Q90Open question

    The Triveni Canal has been constructed on which river?

    1. Kosi
    2. Sone
    3. Gandak
    4. Mayurakshi
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Gandak

    Explanation

    The Triveni Canal (built 1909–1914) takes off from the Gandak near Triveni Ghat, West Champaran.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Kosi has the Eastern/Western Kosi canals.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Sone has the Sone canal system.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the Triveni canal draws from the Gandak (West Champaran).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Mayurakshi is in Jharkhand/West Bengal.

  91. Q91Open question

    Assertion (A): Rich placer deposits of gold are found on the Ghana coast and gold-bearing veins are found in Brazil. Reason (R): At some point in time, these continents were joined together along the Atlantic coast.

    1. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
    2. Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
    3. A is false but R is true
    4. A is true but R is false
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

    Explanation

    Matching gold deposits across the Atlantic is classic evidence for continental drift (Wegener).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the gold source rocks were continuous when Africa and South America were joined.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: R does explain A (continental drift evidence).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: A is true.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: R is true.

  92. Q92Open question

    Bihar's geological structure consists of several rock systems. Match the rock systems with their descriptions: a. Dharwar rock system b. Vindhyan rock system c. Quaternary rock system d. Tertiary rock system 1. Created by rapid deposition of alluvium by Himalayan and Peninsular rivers 2. Found in West Champaran district 3. Part of the oldest Archaean rock system 4. Sandstone, limestone, dolomite, quartzite and shale are the main constituents

    1. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
    2. a-1, b-3, c-2, d-4
    3. a-2, b-3, c-4, d-1
    4. a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2

    Explanation

    In Bihar, Tertiary (Shivalik) rocks occur in the north of West Champaran; Quaternary alluvium covers the Ganga plain.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Dharwar–Archaean, Vindhyan–sandstone/limestone, Quaternary–alluvium, Tertiary–West Champaran (Shivalik).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Dharwar is not alluvial.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

  93. Q93Open question

    Which of the following is the world's richest region from a marine biodiversity perspective, comprising 21 islands with estuaries, beaches, nearshore forests, seagrasses, coral reefs, salt marshes and mangroves?

    1. Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
    2. Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
    3. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve
    4. Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve

    Explanation

    The Gulf of Mannar (Tamil Nadu) was India's first marine biosphere reserve and is home to the dugong.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: its 21 islands and coral/seagrass ecosystems make it exceptionally rich.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a Himalayan reserve.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a mangrove delta, not 21 islands with coral reefs.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a terrestrial mountain reserve.

  94. Q94Open question

    What is the local time at Thimphu (Bhutan), located at 90° East longitude, when it is 12:00 noon at Greenwich (0°)?

    1. 6:00 p.m.
    2. 4:00 p.m.
    3. 7:00 p.m.
    4. 6:00 a.m.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 6:00 p.m.

    Explanation

    Each degree of longitude equals 4 minutes; places east are ahead, so 90°E is 6 hours ahead.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: 90° × 4 min = 360 min = 6 hours ahead → 6 p.m.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is only 4 hours ahead.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 7 hours would be 105°E.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: east of Greenwich is ahead, not behind.

  95. Q95Open question

    Which of the following statements is correct?

    1. Natural gas is found in the Dharwar rock formation.
    2. Mica is found in Koderma.
    3. The Cuddapah series is famous for diamonds.
    4. Petroleum reserves are found in the Aravalli hills.
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Mica is found in Koderma.

    Explanation

    Koderma was once called the 'mica capital of India'.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: natural gas is found in sedimentary (Tertiary) rocks.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Koderma (Jharkhand) is famous for mica.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Cuddapah is known for building stones/barytes; Vindhyan (Panna) for diamonds.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Aravallis are ancient folded rocks without petroleum.

  96. Q96Open question

    How many parallels of latitude are there on the globe if drawn at 1° intervals?

    1. 180
    2. 178
    3. 179
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 179

    Explanation

    NCERT: at 1° intervals there are 89 parallels in each hemisphere; with the equator the total is 179.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: miscounts the equator/poles.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: leaves out the equator.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: 89 in each hemisphere plus the equator = 179 (poles are points).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 179 is the NCERT answer.

  97. Q97Open question

    The average height of the Kosi plain above mean sea level is:

    1. 300 m
    2. 150 m
    3. 30 m
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 30 m

    Explanation

    The north Bihar plains slope only ~15–20 cm per km, so the Kosi plain is low and flood-prone.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: far too high for the Ganga plain.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: too high.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the very flat Kosi plain lies around 30 m above sea level.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 30 m is the accepted answer.

  98. Q98Open question

    On which plateau do the Tropic of Cancer and the Indian Standard Time meridian (82.5°E) intersect?

    1. Bundelkhand
    2. Baghelkhand
    3. Malwa
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Baghelkhand

    Explanation

    23.5°N meets 82.5°E near the Koriya/Surguja area, part of the Baghelkhand plateau.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Bundelkhand lies further west.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the intersection lies in the Baghelkhand plateau (northern Chhattisgarh).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Malwa is far to the west.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Baghelkhand is correct.

  99. Q99Open question

    Which district of Uttarakhand is NOT situated along the Tibet border?

    1. Uttarkashi
    2. Chamoli
    3. Almora
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Almora

    Explanation

    Uttarkashi, Chamoli and Pithoragarh border Tibet (China); Almora does not.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: borders Tibet.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: borders Tibet.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Almora is an interior district with no international border.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Almora does not border Tibet.

  100. Q100Open question

    Where does the El Niño current flow?

    1. The Pacific Ocean
    2. The Indian Ocean
    3. The Bay of Bengal
    4. More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) The Pacific Ocean

    Explanation

    El Niño is a warm current appearing off Peru/Ecuador in the Pacific, often weakening India's monsoon.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: El Niño is warming of the eastern equatorial Pacific off Peru.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: it affects India's monsoon but flows in the Pacific.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not in the Bay of Bengal.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only the Pacific.

  101. Q101Open question

    Consider the following statements about the collegium system: 1. The Supreme Court collegium is a five-member body headed by the Chief Justice of India and comprising the four next senior-most judges. 2. Parliament evolved the collegium system by law. 3. Judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts are appointed only through the collegium system. 4. The collegium system was introduced in 1993 by Justice P.N. Bhagwati in the First Judges Case. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 3 and 4
    4. 1 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1 and 3

    Explanation

    The collegium arose from the Second (1993) and Third (1998) Judges Cases; the NJAC (2014) was struck down in 2015.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 3 is also correct.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: the collegium evolved through judgments, not a law.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: it came from the Second Judges Case (1993, J.S. Verma), not the First.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the CJI + 4 senior judges recommend, and appointments are made only via this route.

  102. Q102Open question

    Consider the following statements regarding the 42nd Amendment: 1. It added three words to the Preamble – 'Socialist', 'Secular' and 'Integrity'. 2. It added eight Fundamental Duties. 3. It added new Directive Principles, i.e. Articles 39A, 43A and 47. 4. It granted the President, in consultation with the Election Commission, power to decide disqualification of members. Which of the above statements are incorrect?

    1. 1 and 2
    2. 3 and 4
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 2 and 3

    Explanation

    The 42nd Amendment (1976) added 10 Fundamental Duties (Art. 51A) and DPSPs 39A, 43A, 48A.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is correct.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 4 reflects the 42nd Amendment's changes.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: it added ten Fundamental Duties, and the new DPSPs were 39A, 43A and 48A (Art. 47 is original).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: both are correct.

  103. Q103Open question

    The criteria for a community to be declared a Scheduled Tribe are: 1. indications of primitive traits 2. distinctive culture 3. shyness of contact with the community at large 4. backwardness and geographical isolation Which of the above are correct?

    1. Only 1 and 2
    2. Only 2, 3 and 4
    3. Only 1, 3 and 4
    4. All of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) All of the above

    Explanation

    Lokur Committee criteria: primitive traits, distinctive culture, geographical isolation, shyness of contact and backwardness.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: 3 and 4 are also Lokur criteria.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: primitive traits is also a criterion.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: distinctive culture is also a criterion.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: these are the five Lokur Committee (1965) criteria (with backwardness and isolation).

  104. Q104Open question

    From which country did the Indian Constitution take the idea of Fundamental Rights?

    1. Ireland
    2. United States of America
    3. United Kingdom
    4. Canada
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) United States of America

    Explanation

    From the USA: Fundamental Rights, judicial review, independent judiciary, removal of judges.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Ireland inspired the DPSPs.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the US Bill of Rights inspired Fundamental Rights.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: the UK has no written bill of rights.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Canada inspired the federal structure.

  105. Q105Open question

    Untouchability is abolished by which Article of the Indian Constitution?

    1. Article 14
    2. Article 15
    3. Article 17
    4. Article 22
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Article 17

    Explanation

    Article 17 abolishes untouchability and makes its practice an offence (Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: equality before law.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: prohibition of discrimination.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Article 17 abolishes untouchability.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: protection against arrest and detention.

  106. Q106Open question

    The authority to determine the number of judges in a High Court rests with:

    1. The President
    2. The Chief Minister of the State
    3. The Prime Minister
    4. The Parliament
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) The President

    Explanation

    Unlike the Supreme Court (fixed by Parliament), the strength of each High Court is determined by the President.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the President fixes HC judge strength from time to time.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the CM.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the PM.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Parliament fixes the Supreme Court's strength, not HCs'.

  107. Q107Open question

    The Fifth Schedule deals with the administration and protection of the interests of which group?

    1. Scheduled Castes
    2. Religious minorities
    3. Scheduled Tribes
    4. Linguistic minorities
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Scheduled Tribes

    Explanation

    The Fifth Schedule provides for Scheduled Areas and Tribes Advisory Councils in states other than Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, Mizoram.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the Fifth Schedule's focus.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the Fifth Schedule covers Scheduled Areas and Scheduled Tribes.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

  108. Q108Open question

    In which case did the Supreme Court first propound the doctrine of the 'basic structure' of the Constitution?

    1. Golaknath vs State of Punjab
    2. Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
    3. Minerva Mills vs Union of India
    4. Both (A) and (B)
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala

    Explanation

    In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), a 13-judge bench held Parliament cannot alter the Constitution's basic structure.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Golaknath (1967) held Parliament cannot amend FRs, but did not use 'basic structure'.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the 1973 judgment introduced the basic structure doctrine.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Minerva Mills (1980) applied and strengthened it.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: only Kesavananda first laid it down.

  109. Q109Open question

    Match the political parties (List-I) with their years of establishment (List-II): a. CPI(M) b. CPI c. Bahujan Samaj Party d. All India Trinamool Congress 1. 1964 2. 1998 3. 1925 4. 1984

    1. a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2
    2. a-2, b-1, c-4, d-3
    3. a-2, b-1, c-3, d-4
    4. a-3, b-4, c-1, d-2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) a-1, b-3, c-4, d-2

    Explanation

    CPI (1925, Kanpur); CPI(M) split from it in 1964; BSP founded by Kanshi Ram in 1984; TMC by Mamata Banerjee in 1998.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: CPI(M) 1964, CPI 1925, BSP 1984, AITC 1998.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: CPI(M) split in 1964.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: CPI was founded in 1925.

  110. Q110Open question

    Under which Article can the Speaker allow a member of the House to speak in his/her mother tongue?

    1. Article 110(1)
    2. Article 122(2)
    3. Article 120(1)
    4. Both (A) and (B)
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Article 120(1)

    Explanation

    Article 120: business in Parliament is in Hindi or English, but the Speaker/Chairman may permit a member's mother tongue.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: defines Money Bills.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: protects officers regulating procedure from courts.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Article 120(1) proviso lets the presiding officer permit the mother tongue.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: neither is relevant.

  111. Q111Open question

    The Foreign Exchange Reserves of RBI include which of the following? 1. Foreign Currency Assets (FCA) 2. Gold 3. Special Drawing Rights (SDR) 4. Reserve Tranche Position

    1. Only 1 and 2
    2. Only 2, 3 and 4
    3. Only 1, 2 and 3
    4. All of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) All of the above

    Explanation

    RBI reports reserves in four components: FCA, gold, SDRs and the IMF reserve tranche.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: SDR and RTP are also included.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: FCA, the largest part, is also included.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: the reserve tranche is also included.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: India's forex reserves = FCA + gold + SDRs + reserve tranche position with the IMF.

  112. Q112Open question

    Consider the following statements about 'Rules of Origin': 1. They are the criteria needed to determine the national source of a product. 2. They help customs know what regulations and fees apply to a product. 3. They are used for trade statistics. 4. They matter because duties and restrictions often depend on the source of imports. Which of the above statements are correct?

    1. Only 1 and 2
    2. Only 3 and 4
    3. Only 1, 3 and 4
    4. All of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) All of the above

    Explanation

    Rules of origin decide a product's 'economic nationality' for tariffs, quotas, trade remedies and statistics.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: 3 and 4 are also correct.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: 1 and 2 are also correct.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 2 is also correct.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: all four reflect the WTO description of rules of origin.

  113. Q113Open question

    Consider the following statements about infant mortality rate (IMR): 1. It is the probability of dying between birth and exactly 1 year of age, per 10,000 live births. 2. India's IMR in 1950 was about 189.6. 3. In 2019, India's IMR was 30. 4. As per the SRS Bulletin, the state with the highest IMR in 2019 was Uttar Pradesh. Which of the above statements are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 2, 3 and 4
    3. Only 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only 2 and 3

    Explanation

    IMR is measured per 1,000 live births; SRS 2019 put India at 30 and Madhya Pradesh highest (46).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: IMR is per 1,000 live births, not 10,000.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Madhya Pradesh, not UP, had the highest IMR in 2019.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: IMR was ~190 around 1950 and 30 in 2019; 1 and 4 are wrong.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: both are wrong.

  114. Q114Open question

    Human capital formation as a concept is better explained as a process which enables: 1. individuals of a country to accumulate more capital 2. increasing knowledge 3. increasing skill levels 4. increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of the people of the country

    1. Only 1
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 3 and 4
    4. Only 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Only 4

    Explanation

    NCERT defines human capital formation as increasing the knowledge, skill levels and capacities of a country's people.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: accumulating capital is physical, not human, capital.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: incomplete and partly wrong.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 4 alone is the complete definition.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: human capital formation means raising people's knowledge, skills and capacities.

  115. Q115Open question

    Consider the following statements regarding insolvency and bankruptcy: 1. Bankruptcy refers to a financial state in which an individual or entity is unable to pay debts as they fall due. 2. Insolvency refers to a legal process where the debtor's assets are liquidated or reorganised for creditors. 3. Bankruptcy is a state whereas insolvency is the conclusion. 4. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India (IBBI) regulates insolvency and bankruptcy proceedings. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. 1, 2 and 3
    2. 2, 3 and 4
    3. Only 4
    4. Only 1 and 2
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Only 4

    Explanation

    Insolvency is a financial state; bankruptcy is a legal declaration. IBBI (2016) regulates the process under the IBC.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statements 1–3 swap the two terms.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: 2 and 3 are wrong.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: insolvency is the state of inability to pay; bankruptcy is the legal outcome; only 4 is correct.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: these definitions are reversed.

  116. Q116Open question

    In which year was the (second) Industrial Policy Resolution adopted?

    1. 1956
    2. 1954
    3. 1952
    4. 1950
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1956

    Explanation

    India's Industrial Policy Resolutions came in 1948 and 1956; the 1956 one gave the public sector a leading role.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 classified industries into three schedules.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: no IPR in 1954.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: no IPR in 1952.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: the first IPR was in 1948.

  117. Q117Open question

    Consider the following statements about the PLI scheme for IT hardware: 1. It offers production-linked incentives to boost domestic manufacturing of mobile phones and specified electronic components. 2. It has two categories of applicants: global companies and domestic companies. 3. It extends an average incentive of around 8% on net incremental sales for six years. 4. The target segment includes laptops, tablets, all-in-one PCs, servers and Ultra-Small Form Factor (USFF) devices. Which of the above statements are incorrect?

    1. 1 and 4
    2. 2 and 4
    3. 1 and 3
    4. 2 and 3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1 and 3

    Explanation

    PLI 2.0 for IT hardware (2023, ₹17,000 crore) covers laptops, tablets, AIO PCs, servers and USFF with ~5% average incentive.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 4 is correct.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: both are correct.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: mobile phones fall under a separate PLI (LSEM), and the IT hardware incentive is ~5% over six years, not 8%.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is correct.

  118. Q118Open question

    Consider the following statements regarding the SVAMITVA scheme: 1. It is a Central Sector Scheme under the Ministry of Mines. 2. It creates geo-positioning infrastructure like a CORS network providing 5 cm-level accuracy. 3. CORS means Cross-Origin Resource Sharing. 4. It establishes clear ownership of property in rural inhabited (Abadi) areas by mapping land parcels with drones. Which of the above statements are incorrect?

    1. 2 and 4
    2. 1 and 3
    3. 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1 and 3

    Explanation

    SVAMITVA (2020) is run by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj with Survey of India, issuing property cards via drone mapping.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: both are correct.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: it is under the Ministry of Panchayati Raj, and CORS = Continuously Operating Reference Stations.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is correct.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 4 is correct.

  119. Q119Open question

    Which of the following are consequences of a Financial Emergency under Article 360? 1. The President may order the states to reduce salaries and allowances of all or any class of state employees. 2. Money Bills or other financial bills passed by the State Legislature need not be reserved for the President. 3. The President can direct reduction of salaries and allowances of Union employees, including Supreme Court and High Court judges. 4. Money Bills or other financial bills must be reserved for the President's consideration after passage by the State Legislature.

    1. Only 1, 3 and 4
    2. Only 2
    3. Only 1 and 2
    4. All of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only 1, 3 and 4

    Explanation

    Under Article 360, the Centre can cut salaries (including judges') and require state money bills to be reserved for the President.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: these are the Article 360 consequences.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is the opposite of the rule.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is wrong.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 2 contradicts 4.

  120. Q120Open question

    Which of the following factors could potentially contribute to stagflation in the Indian economy? 1. High inflationary pressure due to increased government spending 2. Decline in industrial production and sluggish economic growth 3. Decrease in aggregate demand and consumer spending 4. Appreciation of the domestic currency reducing export competitiveness

    1. Only 1 and 2
    2. Only 2 and 3
    3. Only 1, 3 and 4
    4. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Stagflation combines high inflation with low growth and high unemployment; falling demand or a stronger currency push inflation down.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: stagflation = high inflation (1) + stagnant growth (2).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: falling demand lowers inflation, which is not stagflation.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 3 and 4 tend to reduce inflation.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 3 and 4 are disinflationary.

  121. Q121Open question

    As per the Economic Survey 2023, which of the following describe(s) the trend of Foreign Direct Investment in India? 1. It has decreased due to less participation of the private sector. 2. It has increased compared to pre-pandemic levels. 3. It has increased rapidly without decreasing in any year after telecom reforms. 4. It has decreased due to a weak global economic situation.

    1. Only 1 and 3
    2. 2 and 4
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. Only 4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2 and 4

    Explanation

    Economic Survey 2022-23 noted FDI inflows moderated with global slowdown but remained above pre-pandemic levels.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: neither matches the Survey.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: FDI stayed above pre-pandemic levels but dipped amid global weakness.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 1 and 3 are wrong.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is also correct.

  122. Q122Open question

    What is the (approximate) current population of Gaya city in Bihar, as per the options given?

    1. 5,98,000
    2. 3,20,000
    3. 7,80,000
    4. 2,34,000
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 5,98,000

    Explanation

    The question says 'district', but Gaya district had ~43.9 lakh people (2011); the options only fit Gaya city, whose projected population is close to 6 lakh.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Gaya city had ~4.7 lakh people in 2011, projected near 6 lakh now; the closest option.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: below even the 2011 figure.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: higher than projections for the city.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: far too low.

  123. Q123Open question

    Which of the following statements about non-plan expenditure of the Central Government is correct?

    1. It includes interest payments.
    2. It includes science and technology.
    3. It includes agriculture.
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) It includes interest payments.

    Explanation

    Non-plan expenditure covered interest, defence, subsidies, pensions and salaries (the plan/non-plan split ended in 2017-18).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: interest payments were the largest non-plan item.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: S&T was mainly plan expenditure.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: agriculture development was plan expenditure.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: option A is correct.

  124. Q124Open question

    Which of the following is NOT true about globalisation and its impact on India?

    1. It has expanded trade in goods and services.
    2. It has led to greater flow of FDI.
    3. The increase in exports is greater than the increase in imports.
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) The increase in exports is greater than the increase in imports.

    Explanation

    Post-1991, India's imports (especially oil, electronics, gold) have outpaced exports, keeping a merchandise trade deficit.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: true.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: true.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: imports have grown faster, widening the trade deficit.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: option C is not true.

  125. Q125Open question

    Consider the following statements about recent Union Government finances: 1. The fiscal deficit reached 9.2% of GDP during the pandemic year FY21. 2. The fiscal deficit moderated to 7.7% of GDP in FY22. 3. Revenue collection over the last two years has gone down. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. Only 1
    2. 1 and 2
    3. 2 and 3
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Only 1

    Explanation

    Economic Survey 2022-23: fiscal deficit 9.2% (FY21) → 6.7% (FY22), aided by buoyant revenue collection.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: FY21 deficit was 9.2%; FY22 was 6.7% (not 7.7%), and revenue rose.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: FY22 deficit was 6.7%.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: both are wrong.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is correct.

  126. Q126Open question

    Which of the following were reasons for the failure of the Revolt of 1857? 1. The military superiority of the British 2. The rebels did not have a unified programme and ideology 3. There was a lack of support from all sections of society

    1. Only 1 and 2
    2. Only 2 and 3
    3. All of the above
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) All of the above

    Explanation

    Superior British arms and communications, lack of unified leadership/ideology, and non-participation of many rulers, zamindars and the educated class led to failure.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: lack of broad support was also a reason.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: British military superiority was also a reason.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: all three contributed to the revolt's failure.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: all three are valid reasons.

  127. Q127Open question

    The cook from Bihar who saved Mahatma Gandhi's life from a poisoning attempt in 1917 was:

    1. Muzaffar Ahmad
    2. Batak Mian
    3. Mir Bakawal
    4. None of them
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Batak Mian

    Explanation

    During the Champaran Satyagraha, indigo planter Irwin's cook Batak Mian foiled a plot to poison Gandhi.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the cook.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Batak Mian refused to serve poisoned milk to Gandhi at Motihari (Champaran).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the cook.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Batak Mian is correct.

  128. Q128Open question

    The Bakasht Movement in Bihar during 1937–38 was organised by:

    1. Swami Dayanand Saraswati
    2. Jayaprakash Narayan
    3. Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
    4. Peer Ali Khan
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Swami Sahajanand Saraswati

    Explanation

    The Bakasht movement opposed zamindars' seizure of tenants' land (bakasht land) under Sahajanand's Kisan Sabha.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: founder of Arya Samaj (died 1883).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the organiser.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the Kisan Sabha leader led the Bakasht struggle against eviction from tenanted land.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a 1857 revolutionary of Patna.

  129. Q129Open question

    Arrange the following events of India's freedom struggle in chronological order: 1. Home Rule Movement 2. Surat Split 3. Kheda Satyagraha 4. Minto-Morley Reforms

    1. 1-3-2-4
    2. 2-4-1-3
    3. 1-4-2-3
    4. 2-3-1-4
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2-4-1-3

    Explanation

    Surat Split (1907), Indian Councils Act (1909), Home Rule Leagues (1916), Kheda Satyagraha (1918).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Surat Split (1907) came first.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Surat 1907 → Minto-Morley 1909 → Home Rule 1916 → Kheda 1918.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: wrong order.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Minto-Morley (1909) precedes Kheda (1918).

  130. Q130Open question

    Lord Lytton is NOT associated with which of the following?

    1. The Strachey Famine Commission
    2. The Arms Act
    3. The Vernacular Press Act
    4. The Ilbert Bill
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) The Ilbert Bill

    Explanation

    Lytton (1876–80): Delhi Durbar 1877, VPA and Arms Act 1878, Strachey Commission. Ilbert Bill: Ripon.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: appointed under Lytton (1878).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: passed under Lytton (1878).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: passed under Lytton (1878).

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the Ilbert Bill controversy (1883) was under Lord Ripon.

  131. Q131Open question

    Which treaty was signed after the Battle of Buxar?

    1. The Treaty of Allahabad
    2. The Treaty of Sugauli
    3. The Treaty of Bassein
    4. The Treaty of Salbai
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) The Treaty of Allahabad

    Explanation

    After Buxar (1764), Clive signed the Treaty of Allahabad (1765) with Shah Alam II and Shuja-ud-Daula.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: signed in 1765, giving the Company the Diwani of Bengal, Bihar, Orissa.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: ended the Anglo-Nepal War (1816).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: with the Peshwa (1802).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: ended the First Anglo-Maratha War (1782).

  132. Q132Open question

    In which year did the Dutch East India Company establish its factory at Patna?

    1. 1635
    2. 1632
    3. 1643
    4. 1648
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1632

    Explanation

    The Dutch factory at Patna (1632), trading in saltpetre and textiles, later housed the Patna Collectorate.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the year.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the Dutch set up their Patna factory in 1632.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the year.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the year.

  133. Q133Open question

    In which movement did Mahatma Gandhi first use the hunger strike as a weapon?

    1. Non-Cooperation Movement
    2. Bardoli Satyagraha
    3. Ahmedabad (mill) strike
    4. Rowlatt Satyagraha
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Ahmedabad (mill) strike

    Explanation

    In March 1918 Gandhi fasted to support Ahmedabad mill workers, winning a 35% wage increase.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: later (1920–22).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: led by Vallabhbhai Patel (1928).

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Gandhi's first hunger strike was during the 1918 Ahmedabad mill strike.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: came after (1919).

  134. Q134Open question

    During the Quit India Movement of 1942, leaders of Bihar made a significant contribution. Which prominent Bihar leader was known as 'Bihar Kesari' and actively participated in the Quit India Movement?

    1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    2. Shri Krishna Singh
    3. Anugrah Narayan Sinha
    4. Ram Manohar Lohia
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Shri Krishna Singh

    Explanation

    Shri Krishna Singh (Sri Babu), the first Chief Minister of Bihar, was called 'Bihar Kesari' and actively participated in the Quit India Movement of 1942. Official key (Series A): B.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: known as 'Deshratna', not 'Bihar Kesari'.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: known as 'Bihar Kesari'; he took an active part in the Quit India Movement.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: known as 'Bihar Vibhuti'.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a socialist leader from UP, not 'Bihar Kesari'.

  135. Q135Open question

    In response to the mass agitation of the Champaran Movement, the British Government took which step?

    1. Appointed Mahatma Gandhi as Governor of Champaran
    2. Enforced strict curfew and imposed martial law
    3. Instituted the Champaran Agrarian Committee
    4. Declared Champaran an independent state
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Instituted the Champaran Agrarian Committee

    Explanation

    The committee's report led to the Champaran Agrarian Act, 1918, abolishing the tinkathia system.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: never happened.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the response.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the government set up the Champaran Agrarian Enquiry Committee (1917) with Gandhi as member.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: never happened.

  136. Q136Open question

    Match List-I with List-II: a. Servants of India Society b. Tattvabodhini Sabha c. Atmiya Sabha 1. Debendranath Tagore 2. Gopal Krishna Gokhale 3. Ram Mohan Roy 4. Keshab Chandra Sen

    1. a-2, b-1, c-3
    2. a-2, b-4, c-3
    3. a-1, b-2, c-3
    4. a-1, b-4, c-3
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) a-2, b-1, c-3

    Explanation

    Gokhale founded the Servants of India Society (1905); Debendranath Tagore the Tattvabodhini Sabha (1839); Ram Mohan Roy the Atmiya Sabha (1815).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Gokhale (1905), Debendranath Tagore (1839), Ram Mohan Roy (1815).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Tattvabodhini Sabha was Debendranath's.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Servants of India was Gokhale's.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a and b are wrong.

  137. Q137Open question

    Ambabai, a woman freedom fighter, belonged to which state?

    1. Kerala
    2. Andhra Pradesh
    3. Karnataka
    4. Madhya Pradesh
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Karnataka

    Explanation

    Ambabai of Karnataka took part in the Civil Disobedience Movement and was imprisoned.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not her state.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not her state.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Ambabai of Udupi (Karnataka) was jailed for picketing and Khadi work.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not her state.

  138. Q138Open question

    Who among the following was NOT a member of the Cabinet Mission?

    1. Pethick-Lawrence
    2. A.V. Alexander
    3. J. Andrew
    4. None of them
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) J. Andrew

    Explanation

    The Cabinet Mission (1946): Lord Pethick-Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and A.V. Alexander.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: he led the mission.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a member.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: he was not a member.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: J. Andrew was not a member.

  139. Q139Open question

    "The Indian National Congress was founded on the basis of the safety-valve theory, to protect the British Government from threats." Which leader said this?

    1. C. Rajagopalachari
    2. Lala Lajpat Rai
    3. Bipin Chandra Pal
    4. None of them
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Lala Lajpat Rai

    Explanation

    Lala Lajpat Rai argued A.O. Hume founded the Congress as a safety valve to protect British rule.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not associated with this view.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: he advanced the safety-valve view in Young India (1916).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the leader credited.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Lajpat Rai is correct.

  140. Q140Open question

    At which session of the Indian National Congress were resolutions on Fundamental Rights passed for the first time?

    1. Surat Session, 1907
    2. Gaya Session, 1922
    3. Karachi Session, 1931
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Karachi Session, 1931

    Explanation

    The Karachi session (1931, president Vallabhbhai Patel) passed the Fundamental Rights and Economic Programme resolution drafted by Nehru.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: known for the Moderate–Extremist split.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: known for the Swarajist debate.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the Karachi session adopted the resolution on Fundamental Rights and Economic Policy.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Karachi is correct.

  141. Q141Open question

    In a certain code language, 'GAME' is written as '$+*%' and 'BEAD' is written as '#%+x'. How will 'MADE' be written in that code language?

    1. $+x%
    2. *+$%
    3. *+x%
    4. #+x%
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) *+x%

    Explanation

    From GAME: G=$, A=+, M=*, E=%; from BEAD: B=#, D=x. So MADE = *+x%.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: $ stands for G, not M.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: D is x, not $.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: M = *, A = +, D = x, E = %.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: # stands for B.

  142. Q142Open question

    Q travels East. M travels North. S and T travel in opposite directions. T travels towards the right of Q. Which of the following is definitely true?

    1. M and S travel in opposite directions
    2. S travels towards West
    3. T travels towards North
    4. M and S travel in the same direction
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) M and S travel in the same direction

    Explanation

    Facing East, right is South: T → South, so S → North, which is M's direction.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: S goes North, same as M.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: S goes North.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: T goes South.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: right of East-facing Q is South, so T goes South and S North, same as M.

  143. Q143Open question

    Ramesh owns a 100 sq yd plot and acquires 10% more from his neighbour Suresh, who also owns 100 sq yd. After 2 years, Ramesh sells back 10% of his total plot to Suresh. Which of the following is correct?

    1. Ramesh's land is more than Suresh's
    2. Suresh's land is more than Ramesh's
    3. Both are equal
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Suresh's land is more than Ramesh's

    Explanation

    Ramesh 100 → 110 → 99; Suresh 100 → 90 → 101. Suresh has more.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Ramesh ends with 99, Suresh 101.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Ramesh: 110 − 11 = 99; Suresh: 90 + 11 = 101.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: they differ by 2 sq yd.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: option B is correct.

  144. Q144Open question

    Find the odd pair among the following options.

    1. Millinery : Hats
    2. Brewery : Alcohol
    3. Stationery : Paper
    4. Snobbery : Shoes
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Snobbery : Shoes

    Explanation

    Each pair links a trade/place with its product, except snobbery, which means arrogance.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: millinery is hat-making.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a brewery makes beer/alcohol.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: stationery includes paper goods.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: snobbery is an attitude, unrelated to shoes.

  145. Q145Open question

    What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the series 132, 156, ?, 210, 240, 272?

    1. 196
    2. 182
    3. 199
    4. 204
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 182

    Explanation

    Terms are n(n+1): 11×12, 12×13, 13×14, 14×15, 15×16, 16×17.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: differences must be 24, 26, 28, 30, 32.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: 156 + 26 = 182; also 13 × 14 = 182.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: does not fit.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: does not fit.

  146. Q146Open question

    Select the missing number from the given alternatives: 44 49 37 52 ? 41 58 35 53

    1. 56
    2. 77
    3. 66
    4. 63
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 77

    Explanation

    In each row, the middle number equals 7 times the difference of the outer numbers.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: (52 − 41) × 7 = 77, not 56.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: middle = (first − third) × 7: (44−37)×7 = 49, (58−53)×7 = 35, (52−41)×7 = 77.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: does not fit the pattern.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: does not fit the pattern.

  147. Q147Open question

    Statement: In a one-day cricket match, a team scored 200 runs, of which 160 were made by spinners. Conclusions: 1. 80% of the team consisted of spinners. 2. The opening batsmen were spinners.

    1. Only 1 follows
    2. Only 2 follows
    3. Both 1 and 2 follow
    4. Neither 1 nor 2 follows
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Neither 1 nor 2 follows

    Explanation

    The share of runs tells us nothing about team composition or batting order.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: 80% of runs does not mean 80% of players.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: nothing is said about openers.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: neither follows.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the statement gives only the share of runs.

  148. Q148Open question

    In a code language, GREAT is written as 718222620 and MONK as 13121411. How will VIGOROUS be written?

    1. 22187121812619
    2. 21177121811619
    3. 22187131813620
    4. 21187111711620
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 22187121812619

    Explanation

    G7 R18 E22 A26 T20 and M13 O12 N14 K11 show vowels coded by reverse alphabet position (27 − n).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: consonants keep their position; vowels take reverse position: V22 I18 G7 O12 R18 O12 U6 S19.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: V is 22, not 21.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: O is 12 and S is 19.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: does not follow the rule.

  149. Q149Open question

    Find the odd one among the following groups: Q,W,Z,B; B,H,K,M; W,C,G,J; M,S,V,X

    1. Q,W,Z,B
    2. M,S,V,X
    3. W,C,G,J
    4. B,H,K,M
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) W,C,G,J

    Explanation

    Three groups follow the gaps +6, +3, +2; W,C,G,J does not.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: follows +6, +3, +2.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: follows +6, +3, +2.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: W→C is +6 but C→G is +4 and G→J is +3, breaking the pattern.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: follows +6, +3, +2.

  150. Q150Open question

    Four branches of a company are at M, N, O and P. M is 4 km north of N; P is 2 km south of O; N is 1 km south-east of O. What is the distance between M and P?

    1. 5.34 km
    2. 6.74 km
    3. 28.5 km
    4. None of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 5.34 km

    Explanation

    Horizontal gap = 1/√2 ≈ 0.707 km; vertical gap = 4 − 0.707 + 2 = 5.293 km; distance ≈ 5.34 km.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: with O at origin, N = (0.707, −0.707), M = (0.707, 3.293), P = (0, −2); MP = √(0.5 + 28.02) ≈ 5.34 km.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: too large.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is roughly MP², not MP.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 5.34 km is correct.

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