1. Q1Open question

    Who established trade relations with the Roman Empire?

    1. Cheras
    2. Western Shakas
    3. Vakatakas
    4. Kushanas
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Kushanas

    Explanation

    Kushana rulers like Kanishka issued abundant gold coins influenced by Roman trade along the Silk Route.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Chera ports traded with Rome, but the expected answer is the Kushanas.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: they controlled western ports, but the key answer is the Kushanas.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not noted for Roman trade.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the Kushanas, controlling the Silk Route, had strong trade links with Rome (gold coins on the Roman standard).

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: the Kushanas are the expected answer.

  2. Q2Open question

    The Muslim ruler whose kingdom was regarded as a part of Dar-ul-Islam was:

    1. Razia
    2. Iltutmish
    3. Nasir-ud-din
    4. Balban
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Iltutmish

    Explanation

    The Caliph's letter of investiture to Iltutmish formally recognised the Delhi Sultanate as part of the Islamic world.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the ruler recognised by the Caliph.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Iltutmish received investiture from the Abbasid Caliph (1229), making his realm part of Dar-ul-Islam.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the ruler in question.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the ruler in question.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  3. Q3Open question

    Which of these rulers opposed the power of the Caliph?

    1. Alauddin Khalji
    2. Muhammad bin Tughlaq
    3. Balban
    4. Iltutmish
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (E) None of the above / More than one of the above

    Explanation

    Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah (not listed) openly rejected the Caliph by assuming the title of Caliph himself.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: he ignored the Caliph but did not formally oppose his authority.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: he later sought the Caliph's investiture.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: he kept the Caliph's name on coins.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: he accepted the Caliph's investiture.

    • (E) Correct

      Correct: none of A–D opposed the Caliph; it was Qutbuddin Mubarak Shah Khalji who declared himself Caliph.

  4. Q4Open question

    Tughril Khan revolted during whose reign?

    1. Alauddin Khalji
    2. Firoz Tughlaq
    3. Khizr Khan
    4. Balban
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Balban

    Explanation

    Balban personally led the campaign that defeated and executed Tughril Khan in Bengal.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not his reign.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not his reign.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not his reign.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Tughril Khan, governor of Bengal, revolted against Balban (c. 1279) and was crushed.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  5. Q5Open question

    Which Mughal ruler first fought against the British?

    1. Aurangzeb
    2. Shah Jahan
    3. Bahadur Shah Zafar
    4. Jahangir
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Aurangzeb

    Explanation

    Child's War (1686–90) under Josiah Child ended with the Company submitting to Aurangzeb.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Aurangzeb defeated the English East India Company in the Anglo-Mughal War (1686–90).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: he fought the Portuguese (Hooghly), not the British.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 1857 came much later.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: he granted trading rights to the English.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  6. Q6Open question

    Which of the following social reforms were initiated by William Bentinck? 1. Abolition of Sati 2. Abolition of slavery 3. Removal of disabilities arising from change of religion 4. Suppression of organised gangs of thugs

    1. 1, 3 and 4 only
    2. 1, 2 and 4 only
    3. 1, 2, 3 and 4
    4. 1 and 2 only
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1, 2 and 4 only

    Explanation

    Bentinck (1828–35) is known for abolishing sati, suppressing thuggee (with Sleeman) and humanitarian reforms; the Caste Disabilities Removal Act came in 1850.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the religious-disability law came under Dalhousie (1850).

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Bentinck abolished sati (1829), suppressed thuggee and began moves against slavery (Charter Act 1833).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 3 belongs to a later period.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: suppression of thugs is also Bentinck's.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: option B is correct.

  7. Q7Open question

    Who conquered and annexed Sindh?

    1. Sleeman
    2. Napier
    3. Lawrence
    4. Wellington
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Napier

    Explanation

    Napier's victories at Miani and Hyderabad (1843) led to Sindh's annexation under Ellenborough.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: he suppressed thuggee.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Sir Charles Napier conquered Sindh in 1843.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: associated with Punjab.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: fought the Marathas earlier.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  8. Q8Open question

    In which year did the first census begin in India?

    1. 1901
    2. 1911
    3. 1921
    4. 1872
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1872

    Explanation

    1872 was India's first census; the first synchronous census was in 1881 under Lord Ripon.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: too late.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: too late.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: too late.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the first (non-synchronous) census was in 1872 under Lord Mayo.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  9. Q9Open question

    On which date were Sukhdev, Bhagat Singh and Rajguru hanged?

    1. 23 March 1931
    2. 7 September 1931
    3. 4 March 1931
    4. 12 November 1930
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 23 March 1931

    Explanation

    23 March is observed as Shaheed Diwas (Martyrs' Day) in their memory.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: they were executed at Lahore jail on 23 March 1931.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: wrong date.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: wrong date (Gandhi–Irwin Pact was 5 March).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: wrong date.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  10. Q10Open question

    Who was the third satyagrahi of the Individual Satyagraha launched by Gandhi in 1940?

    1. Jawaharlal Nehru
    2. Rajendra Prasad
    3. Brahma Dutt
    4. Vinoba Bhave
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Brahma Dutt

    Explanation

    Individual Satyagraha (Oct 1940): Vinoba Bhave first, Nehru second, Brahma Dutt third.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Nehru was the second.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the third.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Brahma Dutt was the third individual satyagrahi.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Vinoba was the first.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  11. Q11Open question

    Who started the 'secret (Congress) radio' during the Quit India Movement?

    1. Subhadra Kumari Chauhan
    2. Sucheta Kripalani
    3. Annie Besant
    4. Usha Mehta
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Usha Mehta

    Explanation

    Congress Radio first broadcast on 14 August 1942 and was run by Usha Mehta and associates.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: a poet and satyagrahi.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: worked underground, but not the radio founder.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: she died in 1933.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Usha Mehta ran the underground Congress Radio from Bombay in 1942.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  12. Q12Open question

    Who was the physician of the Magadha ruler Bimbisara?

    1. Vijayasena
    2. Jivaka
    3. Manu
    4. Shilabhadra
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Jivaka

    Explanation

    Jivaka Komarabhacca was physician to Bimbisara and the Buddha.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not his physician.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Jivaka, trained at Taxila, was the royal physician (also treated the Buddha).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: the law-giver, not a physician.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a Nalanda scholar of later times.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  13. Q13Open question

    Who was the real founder of Turkish rule in Bihar?

    1. Ikhtiyar-ud-din Bakhtiyar Khalji
    2. Ibrahim
    3. Dariya Khan Nuhani
    4. Malik Husamuddin
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Ikhtiyar-ud-din Bakhtiyar Khalji

    Explanation

    Bakhtiyar Khalji's raids into Bihar and Bengal laid the foundation of Turkish rule in the region.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Bakhtiyar Khalji conquered Bihar (c. 1197–1203), destroying Nalanda/Odantapuri.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the founder.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a later (Lodi-era) governor.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: an associate, not the founder.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: option A is the accepted answer.

  14. Q14Open question

    Who was the first Indian Governor of Bihar (and Orissa)?

    1. Dr. Shri Krishna Singh
    2. Braj Kishore Prasad
    3. B.P. Mandal
    4. Satyendra Prasanna Sinha
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Satyendra Prasanna Sinha

    Explanation

    Satyendra Prasanna Sinha (Lord Sinha of Raipur) was appointed Governor of Bihar & Orissa in 1920.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: he was the first Premier/CM.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a Congress leader, not Governor.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a later CM.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Lord S.P. Sinha became Governor of Bihar and Orissa in 1920, the first Indian governor of a province.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  15. Q15Open question

    Who were the leaders of the Santhal Rebellion?

    1. Sidhu and Kanhu
    2. Gaurakshini Bhagat and Keshav Chandra Roy
    3. Shambhunath Pal and Kora Malaya
    4. Jatra Bhagat and Balram Bhagat
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Sidhu and Kanhu

    Explanation

    Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu led the Santhal Hul (1855–56) in the Rajmahal hills against zamindars and the British.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the brothers led the 1855–56 Santhal Hul.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the Santhal leaders.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the Santhal leaders.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Jatra Bhagat led the Tana Bhagat movement.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  16. Q16Open question

    In which year did the Chuar rebellion of Bihar take place?

    1. 1842
    2. 1798
    3. 1784
    4. 1832
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1798

    Explanation

    The Chuars (tribal peasants of Manbhum/Jungle Mahal) rose in 1798 against land revenue demands.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the main uprising.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the major Chuar uprising was in 1798.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the main uprising.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: that was the Kol rebellion period.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  17. Q17Open question

    In which year was Orissa separated from Bihar?

    1. 1936
    2. 1956
    3. 2000
    4. 1912
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 1936

    Explanation

    Under the Government of India Act 1935, Orissa became a separate province in 1936.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Orissa became a separate province on 1 April 1936.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: States Reorganisation year.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Jharkhand was carved out in 2000.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Bihar and Orissa separated from Bengal then.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  18. Q18Open question

    Where was the First Buddhist Council held?

    1. Rajagriha
    2. Amaravati
    3. Kanaganahalli
    4. Pataliputra
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Rajagriha

    Explanation

    The First Council compiled the Sutta and Vinaya Pitakas soon after the Buddha's death.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: held at the Saptaparni cave, Rajagriha, under Ajatashatru (c. 483 BCE).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a council venue.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a Buddhist site in Karnataka.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: the Third Council was held there.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  19. Q19Open question

    Which Gupta ruler came to power after killing his elder brother?

    1. Samudragupta
    2. Chandragupta II
    3. Skandagupta
    4. Shrigupta
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Chandragupta II

    Explanation

    Vishakhadatta's Devichandraguptam tells how Chandragupta II killed Ramagupta and married Dhruvadevi.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: he was chosen by Chandragupta I.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: he killed his elder brother Ramagupta (per Devichandraguptam).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: faced a succession struggle, but this story is of Chandragupta II.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: the dynasty's founder.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  20. Q20Open question

    Who founded the Vardhana dynasty?

    1. Rajyavardhana
    2. Adityavardhana
    3. Prabhakaravardhana
    4. Pushyabhuti
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Pushyabhuti

    Explanation

    The Vardhana (Pushyabhuti) dynasty of Thanesar was founded by Pushyabhuti.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Harsha's elder brother.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a later ruler.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Harsha's father, first major ruler.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Pushyabhuti founded the dynasty at Thanesar.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  21. Q21Open question

    The Sargasso Sea is a part of the:

    1. Arctic Ocean
    2. North Atlantic Ocean
    3. South Atlantic Ocean
    4. Indian Ocean
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) North Atlantic Ocean

    Explanation

    The Sargasso Sea, known for floating Sargassum weed, is the only sea without a land boundary.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not in the Arctic.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: it lies in the North Atlantic, bounded by currents, not land.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not in the South Atlantic.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not in the Indian Ocean.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  22. Q22Open question

    What is the boundary line between India and China called?

    1. Radcliffe Line
    2. Indira Point
    3. Durand Line
    4. McMahon Line
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) McMahon Line

    Explanation

    The McMahon Line marks the boundary in the eastern sector (Arunachal Pradesh).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: India–Pakistan/Bangladesh boundary.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: India's southernmost point.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Afghanistan–Pakistan boundary.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the eastern India–China boundary drawn at Shimla (1914).

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  23. Q23Open question

    Rajasthan receives very little rainfall because:

    1. it is very hot
    2. there is no water and so the winds stay dry
    3. the winds meet no barrier, so they do not rise high enough to cool
    4. the monsoon fails to reach the region
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) the winds meet no barrier, so they do not rise high enough to cool

    Explanation

    The Aravallis run parallel to the south-west monsoon winds, so there is no orographic lifting over western Rajasthan.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: heat alone does not explain it.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: monsoon winds do carry moisture.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the Aravallis lie parallel to the Arabian Sea branch, so winds are not forced up.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: the monsoon does reach, but gives little rain.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  24. Q24Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Project Tiger was launched in India in 1973. 2. International Biodiversity Day 2022 had the theme 'Building a shared future for all life'. 3. Project Tiger is a programme to conserve tigers. Which of the above statements is/are true?

    1. 1 and 2 only
    2. 2 and 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 1 only
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 1, 2 and 3

    Explanation

    Project Tiger began on 1 April 1973; the 2022 Biodiversity Day theme was 'Building a shared future for all life'.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 3 is also true.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is also true.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: all three statements are true.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 2 and 3 are also true.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: option C is correct.

  25. Q25Open question

    Karewas are famous for the cultivation of:

    1. Saffron
    2. Mango
    3. Grapes
    4. Banana
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Saffron

    Explanation

    Karewas are thick glacial-clay deposits in the Kashmir Valley, ideal for saffron, almonds and walnuts.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Kashmir's karewa (lacustrine) deposits are known for saffron (Pampore).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not grown on karewas.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the karewa crop.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the karewa crop.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  26. Q26Open question

    Which state of India leads in thorium production?

    1. Bihar
    2. Jharkhand
    3. Madhya Pradesh
    4. Kerala
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Kerala

    Explanation

    Thorium is extracted from monazite sands along the Kerala (and other coastal) beaches.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a leading thorium producer.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: known for uranium, not thorium.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a leading thorium producer.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Kerala's monazite beach sands are the main thorium source.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  27. Q27Open question

    At which of the following places is the newsprint industry located?

    1. Durgapur
    2. Nepanagar
    3. Kanpur
    4. Satna
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Nepanagar

    Explanation

    Nepa Mills at Nepanagar (Burhanpur, MP) started newsprint production in 1955.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: known for steel.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Nepa Mills (MP) is India's first newsprint mill.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: known for leather and textiles.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: known for cement.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  28. Q28Open question

    Where was the first coal mine dug in India?

    1. Raniganj
    2. Dhanbad
    3. Asansol
    4. Jharia
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Raniganj

    Explanation

    The East India Company's Sumner and Heatly began commercial coal mining at Raniganj in 1774.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: mining began at Raniganj (West Bengal) in 1774.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: developed later.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: part of the Raniganj field but not the first named site.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: developed later.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  29. Q29Open question

    According to Census 2011, which is the most populous Scheduled Tribe in India?

    1. Kol
    2. Bhil
    3. Gond
    4. Santhal
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Bhil

    Explanation

    Census 2011: Bhil > Gond > Santhal among Scheduled Tribes.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: much smaller.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the Bhils are the largest ST (about 1.7 crore).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: second largest.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: third largest.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  30. Q30Open question

    The total geographical area of Bihar is:

    1. 94,316 sq km
    2. 94,163 sq km
    3. 94,526 sq km
    4. 94,200 sq km
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 94,163 sq km

    Explanation

    Bihar covers 94,163 sq km, about 2.86% of India's area.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect figure.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Bihar's area is 94,163 sq km.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect figure.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect figure.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  31. Q31Open question

    Which river is called the 'Sorrow of Bihar'?

    1. Ganga
    2. Kosi
    3. Son
    4. Ghaghara
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Kosi

    Explanation

    The Kosi has shifted over 100 km westward in about 200 years, causing devastating floods.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not so called.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the Kosi's frequent course changes and floods earned it this name.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not so called.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not so called.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  32. Q32Open question

    In which district of Bihar is the Telhar Kund waterfall located?

    1. Nawada
    2. Kaimur
    3. Rohtas
    4. Sasaram
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Kaimur

    Explanation

    Telhar Kund (Kaimur) is a seasonal waterfall on the Kaimur plateau.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Nawada has Kakolat falls.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Telhar Kund is in the Kaimur hills, Kaimur district.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Rohtas has Manjhar Kund/Dhuan Kund.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Sasaram is a town in Rohtas.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  33. Q33Open question

    Which is Asia's largest freshwater oxbow lake, located in Bihar?

    1. Kanwar Lake
    2. Anupam Lake
    3. Kusheshwar Lake
    4. Ghogha Lake
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Kanwar Lake

    Explanation

    Kabartal/Kanwar Lake in Begusarai was declared a Ramsar site in 2020.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Kanwar Lake (Begusarai) is Asia's largest freshwater oxbow lake and Bihar's first Ramsar site.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a small lake in Kaimur.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a wetland in Darbhanga.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the largest.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  34. Q34Open question

    In which district of Bihar has the largest gold reserve been found?

    1. Jamui
    2. Banka
    3. Katihar
    4. Munger
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Jamui

    Explanation

    GSI estimates ~222.8 million tonnes of gold-bearing ore in Jamui's Karmatiya/Sono area.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Jamui (Sono) holds about 44% of India's gold ore reserves.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the main reserve.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a gold district.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the main reserve.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  35. Q35Open question

    Which district of Bihar is known as the 'Silk City'?

    1. Bhojpur
    2. Bhagalpur
    3. Banka
    4. Katihar
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Bhagalpur

    Explanation

    Bhagalpuri (Tussar) silk has a GI tag.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not known for silk.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Bhagalpur is famous for Tussar silk.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: produces cocoons, but Bhagalpur is the Silk City.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not known for silk.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  36. Q36Open question

    According to Census 2011, what is the female literacy rate in Bihar?

    1. 71.25%
    2. 50.50%
    3. 51.50%
    4. 61.80%
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 51.50%

    Explanation

    Census 2011 Bihar: overall 61.8%, male 71.2%, female 51.5%.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: that is close to the male rate.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: close, but not the figure.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Bihar's female literacy was 51.5% (lowest in India).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is Bihar's overall literacy.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  37. Q37Open question

    Which is the principal celestial body of the Solar System?

    1. Jupiter
    2. Saturn
    3. Sun
    4. Earth
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Sun

    Explanation

    All planets orbit the Sun, the Solar System's central star.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the largest planet, but not the central body.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a planet.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the Sun holds about 99.8% of the Solar System's mass.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a planet.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  38. Q38Open question

    The Earth's inner layer NIFE is rich in which elements?

    1. Silica and magnesium
    2. Basalt and silica
    3. Nickel and ferrum (iron)
    4. Silica and aluminium
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Nickel and ferrum (iron)

    Explanation

    Suess's layers: SIAL (crust), SIMA (mantle), NIFE (core of nickel and iron).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: that is SIMA.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: basalt is a rock, not an element.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: NIFE = Nickel + Ferrum.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: that is SIAL.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  39. Q39Open question

    Who proposed the concept of the geographical cycle of erosion?

    1. W.M. Davis
    2. S.W. Wooldridge
    3. Kober
    4. A. Holmes
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) W.M. Davis

    Explanation

    William Morris Davis (1899) described landscape evolution through stages of youth, maturity and old age.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Davis proposed the cycle of erosion (youth, maturity, old age).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this concept.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: known for geosyncline theory.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: known for convection current theory.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  40. Q40Open question

    The Roaring Forties, Furious Fifties and Shrieking Sixties blow in which hemisphere?

    1. Southern Hemisphere
    2. Eastern Hemisphere
    3. Western Hemisphere
    4. Northern Hemisphere
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Southern Hemisphere

    Explanation

    These are westerlies at 40°, 50° and 60° South, intensified by the absence of land.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: strong westerlies blow unobstructed over the vast southern oceans.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: these are latitudinal winds.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: these are latitudinal winds.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: land masses weaken westerlies there.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  41. Q41Open question

    How many sessions does the Lok Sabha normally hold in a year?

    1. 4
    2. 5
    3. 6
    4. 3
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 3

    Explanation

    Parliament usually meets thrice a year; the gap between sessions cannot exceed six months (Art. 85).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the usual number.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the usual number.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the usual number.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Budget, Monsoon and Winter sessions.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  42. Q42Open question

    Who was the chairman of the first Law Commission of independent India?

    1. Justice V.K. Sundaram
    2. Justice T.V. Venkatarama Aiyar
    3. M.C. Setalvad
    4. Justice J.L. Kapur
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) M.C. Setalvad

    Explanation

    The first Law Commission of independent India (1955–58) was headed by M.C. Setalvad.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the first chairman.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: chaired a later commission.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the first Attorney General chaired the first Law Commission (1955).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: chaired a later commission.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  43. Q43Open question

    If 'One Nation, One Election' is implemented in India, which Article of the Constitution would need amendment?

    1. Article 172
    2. Article 356
    3. Article 246
    4. Article 83
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (E) None of the above / More than one of the above

    Explanation

    Simultaneous elections require changes to the terms and dissolution of Lok Sabha and assemblies (Arts. 83, 85, 172, 174, 356).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: needed (state assembly term), but others too.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: needed (President's rule), but others too.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: distribution of legislative powers; not central to this.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: needed (Lok Sabha term), but others too.

    • (E) Correct

      Correct: Articles 83, 85, 172, 174 and 356 would all need amendment, so more than one option applies.

  44. Q44Open question

    Which state does not have the Panchayati Raj system?

    1. Mizoram
    2. Meghalaya
    3. Kerala
    4. Nagaland
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (E) None of the above / More than one of the above

    Explanation

    Article 243M exempts Nagaland, Meghalaya, Mizoram and certain hill areas from Part IX.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: exempt, but not the only one.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: exempt, but not the only one.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Kerala has a strong Panchayati Raj system.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: exempt, but not the only one.

    • (E) Correct

      Correct: Mizoram, Meghalaya and Nagaland are all exempt from Part IX (Art. 243M).

  45. Q45Open question

    Lok Sabha seats for each state are determined by the Delimitation Commission. Until which year has this delimitation been frozen?

    1. 2025
    2. 2026
    3. 2027
    4. 2024
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 2026

    Explanation

    Seats are based on the 1971 census until the first census after 2026 (42nd and 84th Amendments).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the freeze year.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the 84th Amendment froze seat allocation until the first census after 2026.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the freeze year.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the freeze year.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  46. Q46Open question

    The Supreme Court is:

    1. the guardian of human (fundamental) rights
    2. the final interpreter of the Constitution
    3. a civil court
    4. a federal court
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (E) None of the above / More than one of the above

    Explanation

    The Supreme Court plays several roles: guardian of fundamental rights, final interpreter of the Constitution and federal court.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: true, but other options are also true.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: true, but other options are also true.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: it also hears civil appeals, but this is not its defining role.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: true (Art. 131 disputes), but others are also true.

    • (E) Correct

      Correct: the Supreme Court is the guardian of rights, final interpreter and federal court, so more than one applies.

  47. Q47Open question

    What does the state government constitute every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats?

    1. Finance Committee
    2. Advisory Commission
    3. Advisory Committee
    4. Finance Commission
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Finance Commission

    Explanation

    The State Finance Commission recommends sharing of taxes and grants between the state and Panchayats.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the constitutional body.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the constitutional body.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the constitutional body.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Article 243-I requires a State Finance Commission every five years.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  48. Q48Open question

    What is the objective of Community Development?

    1. Formation of human capital
    2. Environmental protection
    3. Harmonious living
    4. Economic development
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (E) None of the above / More than one of the above

    Explanation

    The Community Development Programme (1952) sought holistic rural development through people's participation.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: part of the aim, but not the only one.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the main aim.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: part of the aim, but not the only one.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: part of the aim, but not the only one.

    • (E) Correct

      Correct: community development aims at all-round rural development: economic, social and human, so more than one applies.

  49. Q49Open question

    How many members were in the electoral college for India's 16th Vice-Presidential election in 2022?

    1. 788
    2. 545
    3. 250
    4. 798
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 788

    Explanation

    The Vice-President is elected by members of both Houses of Parliament, including nominated members (Art. 66).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: all 543 Lok Sabha + 245 Rajya Sabha members (elected and nominated).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: that is roughly the Lok Sabha's strength.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: that is the Rajya Sabha's maximum strength.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: too many.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  50. Q50Open question

    How many times is the President of India eligible for re-election?

    1. Twice
    2. Thrice
    3. Any number of times
    4. Once
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Any number of times

    Explanation

    Article 57: a person who holds or has held the office of President is eligible for re-election.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: no such limit in the Constitution.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: no such limit.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Article 57 allows re-election without limit.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: no such limit (only Rajendra Prasad was re-elected).

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  51. Q51Open question

    The Bhandari Committee is related to:

    1. Indirect taxation
    2. Agricultural credit
    3. Restructuring of Regional Rural Banks
    4. Direct taxation
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Restructuring of Regional Rural Banks

    Explanation

    The Bhandari Committee recommended restructuring weak Regional Rural Banks.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this committee.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this committee.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the M.V.S. Bhandari Committee (1994) dealt with restructuring RRBs.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this committee.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  52. Q52Open question

    Choose the correct statement about the National Pension System (NPS):

    1. NPS is a retirement scheme of the Government of India giving regular income to all citizens
    2. NPS is regulated by IRDA
    3. NPS is regulated by SEBI
    4. NPS is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) NPS is regulated by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority

    Explanation

    PFRDA (statutory under the PFRDA Act, 2013) administers and regulates NPS.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: it is voluntary and contribution-based, not a guaranteed income for all.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: IRDAI regulates insurance.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: SEBI regulates securities markets.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: PFRDA regulates NPS.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  53. Q53Open question

    Which of the following is NOT among the priorities of India's Budget 2022-23?

    1. Inclusive development
    2. Productivity enhancement and investment, sunrise opportunities, energy transition and climate action
    3. Disinvestment
    4. PM GatiShakti
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Disinvestment

    Explanation

    Budget 2022-23 priorities: PM GatiShakti; inclusive development; productivity, investment, sunrise opportunities, energy transition and climate action; financing of investments.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: one of the four priorities.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a listed priority.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: disinvestment was not one of the four priorities.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a listed priority.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  54. Q54Open question

    What was India's tax-to-GDP ratio in FY 2021-22?

    1. 11.7%
    2. 11.5%
    3. 10.9%
    4. 12.5%
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 11.7%

    Explanation

    Strong post-pandemic collections lifted the Centre's gross tax-GDP ratio to about 11.7% in 2021-22.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the Centre's gross tax-to-GDP ratio was about 11.7% in 2021-22.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: close, but not the figure.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: too low.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: too high.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  55. Q55Open question

    As per commodity classification and groups, what was India's share in world exports in 2018?

    1. 0.7%
    2. 2.1%
    3. 1.3%
    4. 1.7%
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1.7%

    Explanation

    WTO data put India's merchandise export share at about 1.7% in 2018.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: too low.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: too high for merchandise.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: too low.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: India's share in world merchandise exports was about 1.7% in 2018.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  56. Q56Open question

    According to the Fourth Advance Estimates, what was India's total wheat production in 2020-21?

    1. 209.5 million tonnes
    2. 501.5 million tonnes
    3. 201.23 million tonnes
    4. 109.5 million tonnes
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 109.5 million tonnes

    Explanation

    The 4th Advance Estimates (2020-21) put wheat production at about 109.52 million tonnes.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: far too high.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: far too high.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: far too high.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: wheat output was a record ~109.52 million tonnes.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  57. Q57Open question

    Choose the correct statement about the 'Vibrant Villages Programme':

    1. It is for Maharashtra
    2. It began in 2017
    3. It is for development of villages on the northern border
    4. It is for road connectivity in Bihar
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) It is for development of villages on the northern border

    Explanation

    The Vibrant Villages Programme covers border villages in Arunachal, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Himachal and Ladakh.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: it covers northern border states.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: it was announced in Budget 2022-23.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: it targets sparsely populated villages on the northern border.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not Bihar-specific.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  58. Q58Open question

    According to the Bihar Economic Survey 2021-22, choose the INCORRECT statement:

    1. The secondary sector in Bihar grew at 4.8%
    2. The tertiary sector grew at the highest rate of 8.5%
    3. The primary sector grew at 2.8%
    4. The primary sector grew at 2.3%
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) The primary sector grew at 2.8%

    Explanation

    Bihar ES 2021-22 reported growth of 2.3% (primary), 4.8% (secondary) and 8.5% (tertiary).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: consistent with the Survey.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: consistent with the Survey.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: incorrect: the primary sector grew at 2.3%.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: this is the correct figure.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  59. Q59Open question

    Choose the correct order of the following Bihar districts by increasing level of urbanisation:

    1. Nalanda < Patna < Munger
    2. Patna < Munger < Nalanda
    3. Munger < Nalanda < Patna
    4. Nalanda < Munger < Patna
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Nalanda < Munger < Patna

    Explanation

    Census 2011 urbanisation: Patna ~43.5%, Munger ~27.8%, Nalanda ~16%.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Patna is the most urbanised.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: reverse order.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Munger is more urbanised than Nalanda.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Nalanda (~16%) < Munger (~28%) < Patna (~43%).

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  60. Q60Open question

    The fiscal deficit for FY 2022-23 was estimated at what percentage of Bihar's GSDP?

    1. 12.1%
    2. 3.47%
    3. 9.89%
    4. 3.18%
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 3.47%

    Explanation

    Bihar Budget 2022-23 projected a fiscal deficit of about 3.47% of GSDP.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: far too high.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Bihar's 2022-23 budget estimated the fiscal deficit at 3.47% of GSDP.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: far too high.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the budget estimate.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  61. Q61Open question

    Choose the option that is NOT part of Bihar's 'Saat Nishchay Part-2' scheme:

    1. Sashakt Mahila, Saksham Mahila
    2. Har Khet tak Sinchai ka Pani
    3. Air connectivity for all
    4. Yuva Shakti Bihar ki Pragati
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Air connectivity for all

    Explanation

    Saat Nishchay-2 (2020–25) covers youth, women, irrigation, clean villages, clean cities, easy connectivity and health facilities.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: part of Saat Nishchay-2.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: part of Saat Nishchay-2.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: not a component.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: part of Saat Nishchay-2.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  62. Q62Open question

    Choose the correct order of Bihar districts in descending order of per capita income:

    1. Sheohar > Araria > East Champaran > Kishanganj > Nawada
    2. East Champaran > Sheohar > Araria > Kishanganj > Nawada
    3. Araria > Nawada > East Champaran > Sheohar > Kishanganj
    4. Nawada > Kishanganj > East Champaran > Araria > Sheohar
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Nawada > Kishanganj > East Champaran > Araria > Sheohar

    Explanation

    Bihar ES 2021-22 placed Sheohar, Araria and East Champaran among the lowest per capita income districts.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Sheohar is among the poorest districts.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Nawada ranks higher.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: wrong order.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: matches the Bihar Economic Survey ranking.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  63. Q63Open question

    Which statement about poverty estimates based on the NSSO 68th round is NOT true?

    1. The urban poverty line was ₹33.33 per person per day
    2. 21.9% of India's population lived below the poverty line
    3. 33.35% of India's population lived below the poverty line
    4. The rural poverty line was ₹27.20 per person per day
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 33.35% of India's population lived below the poverty line

    Explanation

    Planning Commission (2013), using the 68th round: poverty 21.9%, lines ₹27.20 (rural) and ₹33.33 (urban) per day.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: true (Tendulkar method, 2011-12).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: true.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: not true; the figure was 21.9%.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: true.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  64. Q64Open question

    Which of the following partially defines a micro enterprise in India?

    1. Annual turnover not exceeding ₹15 crore
    2. Investment in plant and machinery not exceeding ₹1.5 crore
    3. Annual turnover above ₹5 crore
    4. Investment in plant and machinery or equipment not exceeding ₹1 crore
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Investment in plant and machinery or equipment not exceeding ₹1 crore

    Explanation

    From July 2020, micro = investment up to ₹1 crore and turnover up to ₹5 crore (revised upward in 2025).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the micro limit is ₹5 crore.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: the limit was ₹1 crore (2020 definition).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: micro is up to ₹5 crore.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the 2020 definition: investment ≤ ₹1 crore and turnover ≤ ₹5 crore.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  65. Q65Open question

    Which of the following is INCORRECT about the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (as a listed component)?

    1. Construction of wells
    2. Increasing recharge of aquifers
    3. Construction of rainwater harvesting structures
    4. Repair, renovation and restoration of water bodies
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Construction of wells

    Explanation

    PMKSY ('Har Khet Ko Pani', 'Per Drop More Crop') funds water harvesting, recharge and renovation of water bodies.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: not listed as a PMKSY component in the key; the scheme stresses water bodies, harvesting and recharge.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a PMKSY objective.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a PMKSY component.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a PMKSY component (RRR).

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  66. Q66Open question

    Who successfully led the 'Bardoli Satyagraha'?

    1. Motilal Nehru
    2. J.B. Kripalani
    3. Jawaharlal Nehru
    4. Vallabhbhai Patel
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Vallabhbhai Patel

    Explanation

    The 1928 Bardoli no-tax campaign against a 22% revenue hike earned Patel the title 'Sardar'.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the leader.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the leader.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the leader.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Patel led it in 1928 and was given the title 'Sardar'.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  67. Q67Open question

    Who among these was NOT a member of the Cabinet Mission sent to India in 1946?

    1. Ramsay MacDonald
    2. A.V. Alexander
    3. Lord Pethick-Lawrence
    4. Sir Stafford Cripps
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Ramsay MacDonald

    Explanation

    The Cabinet Mission comprised Pethick-Lawrence, Cripps and A.V. Alexander.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: MacDonald (Communal Award, 1932) was not a member.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a member.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: led the mission.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a member.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  68. Q68Open question

    In which year was the famous Gandhi–Irwin Pact signed?

    1. 1930
    2. 1931
    3. 1932
    4. 1929
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1931

    Explanation

    The pact suspended Civil Disobedience and enabled Gandhi to attend the Second Round Table Conference.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the Salt March year.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: signed on 5 March 1931.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Poona Pact year.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Lahore session year.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  69. Q69Open question

    At which session did the Congress pass the resolution for complete independence (Purna Swaraj)?

    1. 1924, Belgaum
    2. 1929, Lahore
    3. 1931, Karachi
    4. 1920, Nagpur
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 1929, Lahore

    Explanation

    The Lahore session (Dec 1929) adopted Purna Swaraj; 26 January 1930 was celebrated as Independence Day.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: presided by Gandhi; not Purna Swaraj.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Purna Swaraj was adopted at Lahore under Nehru.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: Fundamental Rights resolution.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: approved Non-Cooperation.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  70. Q70Open question

    Subhas Chandra Bose gave the Nicobar Islands the new name:

    1. Shaheed Dweep
    2. Balidan Dweep
    3. Navodaya Dweep
    4. Swaraj Dweep
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Swaraj Dweep

    Explanation

    In 1943 Bose renamed the Andamans 'Shaheed Dweep' and Nicobar 'Swaraj Dweep'.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: that was the name for the Andamans.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the name.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the name.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Bose named Nicobar 'Swaraj Dweep' in 1943.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  71. Q71Open question

    Chauri Chaura, linked with the burning of a police station in February 1922, is in which state?

    1. Madhya Pradesh
    2. Bihar
    3. Uttar Pradesh
    4. Rajasthan
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Uttar Pradesh

    Explanation

    After the Chauri Chaura violence (5 Feb 1922), Gandhi called off the Non-Cooperation Movement.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not in MP.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not in Bihar.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Chauri Chaura is in Gorakhpur district, UP.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not in Rajasthan.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  72. Q72Open question

    Where did Khudiram Bose attempt to kill Kingsford?

    1. Darbhanga
    2. Muzaffarpur
    3. Gaya
    4. Patna
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Muzaffarpur

    Explanation

    Khudiram Bose and Prafulla Chaki attacked a carriage at Muzaffarpur mistaking it for Kingsford's; Khudiram was hanged in 1908.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the place.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the bomb was thrown at Muzaffarpur on 30 April 1908.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the place.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the place.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  73. Q73Open question

    The 'Azad Dasta' was active in Bihar during which movement?

    1. Non-Cooperation Movement
    2. Civil Disobedience Movement
    3. Quit India Movement
    4. Champaran Satyagraha
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Quit India Movement

    Explanation

    The Azad Dasta was an underground guerrilla group organised by Jayaprakash Narayan from the Nepal terai.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this movement.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this movement.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: JP formed the Azad Dasta during Quit India (1942–43).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this movement.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  74. Q74Open question

    In the Interim Government formed in 1946, who was given the Labour portfolio?

    1. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
    2. Dr. Anugrah Narayan Singh
    3. Syed Ali Zaheer
    4. Jagjivan Ram
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Jagjivan Ram

    Explanation

    Jagjivan Ram became Labour Member in the Interim Government (September 1946).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: he held Food and Agriculture.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not in the interim cabinet.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: he held Law (initially).

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Jagjivan Ram held Labour.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  75. Q75Open question

    In 1942, on which festival did Jayaprakash Narayan escape from Hazaribagh jail?

    1. Holi
    2. Dussehra
    3. Deepawali
    4. Baisakhi
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Deepawali

    Explanation

    JP scaled the Hazaribagh jail wall on Diwali night 1942 and went underground.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the festival.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the festival.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: JP and associates escaped on Diwali night, 9 November 1942.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the festival.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  76. Q76Open question

    Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected President of the Constituent Assembly in:

    1. October 1946
    2. November 1946
    3. December 1946
    4. September 1946
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) December 1946

    Explanation

    Sachchidananda Sinha was temporary chairman (9 Dec 1946); Rajendra Prasad was elected President on 11 Dec 1946.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the Assembly first met in December 1946.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: too early.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: he was elected permanent President on 11 December 1946.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: too early.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  77. Q77Open question

    Who is known as the 'Frontier Gandhi'?

    1. Shaukat Ali
    2. Abul Kalam Azad
    3. Abdul Ghaffar Khan
    4. M.A. Jinnah
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Abdul Ghaffar Khan

    Explanation

    Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan ('Badshah Khan') received the Bharat Ratna in 1987.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: a Khilafat leader.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not called Frontier Gandhi.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: he led the Khudai Khidmatgars in the NWFP.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: leader of the Muslim League.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  78. Q78Open question

    Where did Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi die?

    1. Kanpur
    2. Gwalior
    3. Jhansi
    4. Lucknow
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Gwalior

    Explanation

    Rani Lakshmibai died on 18 June 1858 near Gwalior fighting General Hugh Rose's forces.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the place.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: she fell fighting near Gwalior (Kotah-ki-Serai) in June 1858.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: she escaped Jhansi in April 1858.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the place.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  79. Q79Open question

    Who said about the Partition of Bengal, "The partition fell upon us like a bombshell"?

    1. Gopal Krishna Gokhale
    2. Bipin Chandra Pal
    3. Chittaranjan Das
    4. Surendranath Banerjee
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Surendranath Banerjee

    Explanation

    Surendranath Banerjee, a leading opponent of the 1905 partition, used this phrase.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not his words.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not his words.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not his words.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Banerjee wrote this in 'A Nation in Making'.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  80. Q80Open question

    Whom did Sardar Udham Singh kill?

    1. Curzon Wyllie
    2. Michael O'Dwyer
    3. Saunders
    4. General Dyer
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Michael O'Dwyer

    Explanation

    Udham Singh avenged Jallianwala Bagh by killing Michael O'Dwyer, Punjab's Lt. Governor in 1919.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: killed by Madan Lal Dhingra (1909).

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Udham Singh shot O'Dwyer in London in 1940.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: killed by Bhagat Singh and Rajguru (1928).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: Dyer died of illness in 1927.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  81. Q81Open question

    A clock is set right at exactly 6 a.m. It gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. When it shows 11 a.m. the next day, what is the correct time?

    1. 10:48 a.m.
    2. 10:50 a.m.
    3. 10:54 a.m.
    4. 10:00 a.m.
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 10:48 a.m.

    Explanation

    The clock runs 1450 minutes for every 1440 true minutes; 1740 clock minutes = 1728 true minutes = 28 h 48 min.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: 29 clock-hours = 29 × 1440/1450 true hours = 28 h 48 min; 6 a.m. + 28 h 48 min = 10:48 a.m.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: the gain is proportional, not a flat 10 minutes.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: miscalculated.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: far too early.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  82. Q82Open question

    At what time between 5 and 6 o'clock will the two hands of a clock coincide?

    1. 27 minutes past 5
    2. 27 3/11 minutes past 5
    3. 28 minutes past 5
    4. 26 minutes past 5
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 27 3/11 minutes past 5

    Explanation

    Hands coincide at 60h/11 minutes past h o'clock; for h = 5, that is 300/11 = 27 3/11 minutes.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: the exact time is 27 3/11 minutes past 5.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the hands coincide at (60/11) × 5 = 27 3/11 minutes past 5.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: too late.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: too early.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  83. Q83Open question

    Anil and Suman together can finish a job in 12 days, which Anil alone can do in 20 days. How long will Suman take alone?

    1. 28 days
    2. 29 days
    3. 30 days
    4. 27 days
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 30 days

    Explanation

    Combined rate 1/12 minus Anil's 1/20 leaves Suman's rate 1/30.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: 1/12 − 1/20 = 1/30, not 1/28.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Suman's rate = 1/12 − 1/20 = 1/30, so 30 days.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  84. Q84Open question

    In a class of 55 students, 34 like cricket and 26 like badminton; every student likes at least one. How many like both?

    1. 4
    2. 5
    3. 6
    4. 3
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 5

    Explanation

    n(A ∩ B) = n(A) + n(B) − n(A ∪ B) = 34 + 26 − 55 = 5.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: 34 + 26 − 55 = 5.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: both = 34 + 26 − 55 = 5.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 34 + 26 − 55 = 5.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 34 + 26 − 55 = 5.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  85. Q85Open question

    Which two natural numbers have a product of 2400 and the sum of their squares equal to 5200?

    1. 80, 30
    2. 75, 32
    3. 60, 40
    4. 120, 20
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) 60, 40

    Explanation

    (x + y)² = 5200 + 4800 = 10000 → 100; (x − y)² = 400 → 20; so 60 and 40.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: 80² + 30² = 7300.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: 75² + 32² ≠ 5200.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: 60 × 40 = 2400 and 3600 + 1600 = 5200.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: 120² + 20² = 14800.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  86. Q86Open question

    How many numbers between 100 and 500 are divisible by 4, 5 and 6?

    1. 6
    2. 7
    3. 8
    4. 5
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 7

    Explanation

    LCM(4, 5, 6) = 60; multiples of 60 between 100 and 500 are seven.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: there are 7 multiples of 60.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: multiples of LCM 60: 120, 180, 240, 300, 360, 420, 480 = 7.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: too many.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: too few.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  87. Q87Open question

    A 70 kg mixture has sand and cement in the ratio 4:1. How much more sand must be added to make the ratio 6:1?

    1. 28 kg
    2. 30 kg
    3. 32 kg
    4. 24 kg
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 28 kg

    Explanation

    Cement stays 14 kg; 6:1 needs 84 kg sand; 84 − 56 = 28 kg.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: sand 56, cement 14; need 84 sand → add 28 kg.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: too much.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: too much.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: too little.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  88. Q88Open question

    Shashi sells oranges at ₹150 per dozen and incurs a 25% loss. At what rate should she sell them to gain 20%?

    1. ₹230 per dozen
    2. ₹240 per dozen
    3. ₹250 per dozen
    4. ₹220 per dozen
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) ₹240 per dozen

    Explanation

    Cost price = ₹200 per dozen; a 20% profit means selling at ₹240.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: CP 200 × 1.2 = 240.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: CP = 150/0.75 = 200; SP = 200 × 1.2 = 240.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: too high.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: too low.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  89. Q89Open question

    The diagonals of a rhombus are 10 cm and 24 cm. Its perimeter is:

    1. 52 cm
    2. 56 cm
    3. 60 cm
    4. 48 cm
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 52 cm

    Explanation

    Diagonals bisect at right angles: side = √(5² + 12²) = 13 cm.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: side = √(5² + 12²) = 13 cm; perimeter = 52 cm.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: side is 13, not 14.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  90. Q90Open question

    A 140 m long train runs at 60 km/h and a dog runs parallel in the same direction at 18 km/h. The train will pass the dog in:

    1. 11 seconds
    2. 12 seconds
    3. 12.5 seconds
    4. 10 seconds
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 12 seconds

    Explanation

    Same direction: relative speed = 60 − 18 = 42 km/h = 11.67 m/s; time = 140/11.67 = 12 s.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: relative speed 42 km/h = 35/3 m/s; 140 ÷ 35/3 = 12 s.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  91. Q91Open question

    What type of lens is used in a magnifying glass?

    1. Plano-concave
    2. Convex lens
    3. Convex mirror
    4. Concave lens
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Convex lens

    Explanation

    A simple magnifier is a convex lens held so the object is within its focal length.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: concave lenses diminish.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: a convex lens gives a magnified virtual image when the object is within focus.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a mirror, not a lens.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: diminishes images.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  92. Q92Open question

    Paramagnetism is exhibited by which of the following?

    1. Mercury
    2. Iron
    3. Platinum
    4. Nickel
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Platinum

    Explanation

    Paramagnetic materials (Al, Pt, O₂) are weakly attracted; Fe, Co, Ni are ferromagnetic; Hg, Bi, Cu are diamagnetic.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: mercury is diamagnetic.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: iron is ferromagnetic.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: platinum is paramagnetic.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: nickel is ferromagnetic.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  93. Q93Open question

    Which fundamental particles are found in the nucleus of an atom?

    1. Electrons and protons
    2. Protons and neutrons
    3. Only electrons
    4. Electrons and neutrons
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Protons and neutrons

    Explanation

    Protons and neutrons form the nucleus; electrons orbit around it.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: electrons are outside the nucleus.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the nucleus contains protons and neutrons (nucleons).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: electrons are not in the nucleus.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  94. Q94Open question

    The metallurgical process in which the metal is obtained in a molten (fused) state is called:

    1. Roasting
    2. Calcination
    3. Froth flotation
    4. Smelting
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Smelting

    Explanation

    In smelting (e.g. iron in a blast furnace), the metal is reduced and collected in molten form.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: heating ore in air below melting point.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: heating in limited/no air to remove volatiles.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a concentration method for sulphide ores.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: smelting reduces the ore at high temperature, giving molten metal.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  95. Q95Open question

    Which of the following are the constituents of brass?

    1. Iron and zinc
    2. Copper and nickel
    3. Iron and copper
    4. Zinc and copper
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Zinc and copper

    Explanation

    Brass = copper + zinc; bronze = copper + tin.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not brass.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: that is cupronickel.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not brass.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: brass is an alloy of copper and zinc.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  96. Q96Open question

    Which of the following is called 'quicklime'?

    1. CaCO₃
    2. Ca(OH)₂
    3. CaCl₂
    4. CaO
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) CaO

    Explanation

    Heating limestone gives quicklime (CaO); adding water gives slaked lime Ca(OH)₂.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: limestone.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: slaked lime.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: calcium chloride.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: calcium oxide is quicklime.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  97. Q97Open question

    What change occurs in the weight of iron when it rusts?

    1. It first decreases and then increases
    2. It first increases and then decreases
    3. It remains the same
    4. It increases over a long time
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) It increases over a long time

    Explanation

    Rusting combines iron with oxygen and moisture, so the rusted object weighs more.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: it does not first decrease.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: it does not decrease (unless flakes fall off).

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: oxygen and water are added.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: rust (Fe₂O₃·xH₂O) adds oxygen and water, increasing weight.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  98. Q98Open question

    Which of the following is also called 'white metal'?

    1. Rhodium
    2. Platinum
    3. Palladium
    4. Nickel
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (E) None of the above / More than one of the above

    Explanation

    'White metal' (Babbitt metal) is a group of tin/lead-based alloys used in bearings.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not called white metal.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: called 'white gold' colloquially, not 'white metal'.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not called white metal.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not called white metal.

    • (E) Correct

      Correct: 'White metal' refers to tin- or lead-based bearing alloys, none of the listed metals.

  99. Q99Open question

    With reference to 'noble metals', consider the following: 1. Noble metals are found in nature in a pure (native) state. 2. Uranium and lead are examples of noble metals. Which of the above is/are correct?

    1. 2 only
    2. Both 1 and 2
    3. Brass is also a noble metal
    4. 1 only
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1 only

    Explanation

    Noble metals resist corrosion and oxidation and often occur native (gold, platinum).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: uranium and lead are not noble metals.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is wrong.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: brass is an alloy.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: noble metals (gold, platinum, silver) occur native; uranium/lead do not qualify.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  100. Q100Open question

    Consider the following statements: 1. Dissolving salt in pure water raises its boiling point and lowers its freezing point. 2. Adding methyl alcohol to water lowers the boiling point of water. Which of the above is/are correct?

    1. 1 only
    2. 2 only
    3. Both 1 and 2
    4. Salt and methyl alcohol behave the same way
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Both 1 and 2

    Explanation

    Non-volatile solutes raise boiling point (colligative property); a more volatile liquid like methanol lowers it.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is also correct.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is also correct.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: salt (non-volatile) elevates BP and depresses FP; volatile methanol lowers the mixture's BP.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: they have opposite effects on boiling point.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  101. Q101Open question

    Which is the main component of biogas?

    1. Propane
    2. Butane
    3. Ethane
    4. Methane
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Methane

    Explanation

    Biogas from anaerobic digestion is mostly methane with carbon dioxide.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: a component of LPG.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a component of LPG.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: minor in natural gas.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: biogas is about 50–75% methane.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  102. Q102Open question

    Which chemical produces the bright red colour in fireworks?

    1. Sodium
    2. Sulphur
    3. Magnesium
    4. Strontium
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Strontium

    Explanation

    Firework colours: strontium (red), barium (green), copper (blue), sodium (yellow).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: gives yellow.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a fuel, not a colourant.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: gives brilliant white.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: strontium salts give crimson red.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  103. Q103Open question

    What are plants that thrive in saline environments called?

    1. Mesophytes
    2. Glycophytes
    3. Halophytes
    4. Xerophytes
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Halophytes

    Explanation

    Halophytes, like mangroves and Salicornia, grow in salt marshes and coastal soils.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: grow in moderate water conditions.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: salt-sensitive plants.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: halophytes (e.g. mangroves) tolerate high salinity.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: adapted to dry conditions.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  104. Q104Open question

    What is NOT found in fungi?

    1. Carbon dioxide
    2. Chlorophyll
    3. Sunlight
    4. Oxygen
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Chlorophyll

    Explanation

    Fungi are heterotrophs (saprophytes/parasites) because they have no chlorophyll.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: fungi respire and release CO₂.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: fungi lack chlorophyll and cannot photosynthesise.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not a component of any organism.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: present in their biomolecules.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  105. Q105Open question

    The correct definition of 'pollination' is:

    1. Germination of pollen grain
    2. Pollen tube reaching the ovule
    3. Insects reaching the flowers
    4. Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Transfer of pollen grains from anther to stigma

    Explanation

    Pollination may be self or cross, by wind, water, insects, birds, etc.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: occurs after pollination.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a later step before fertilisation.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a means, not the definition.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: pollination is the transfer of pollen from anther to stigma.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  106. Q106Open question

    Plants obtain their nutrients mainly from:

    1. Atmosphere
    2. Light
    3. Soil
    4. Chlorophyll
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Soil

    Explanation

    Essential mineral nutrients are absorbed from the soil solution by roots.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: gives CO₂, but mineral nutrients come from soil.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: energy source, not nutrients.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: roots absorb mineral nutrients (N, P, K etc.) from soil.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: a pigment, not a nutrient source.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  107. Q107Open question

    Pine, fir, spruce, cedar, larch and cypress, well-known timber plants found in India's hills, are all:

    1. Gymnosperms
    2. Monocots
    3. Dicots
    4. Angiosperms
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Gymnosperms

    Explanation

    Conifers are gymnosperms with seeds borne on cones.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: these conifers bear naked seeds.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: these are angiosperms.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: these are angiosperms.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: conifers do not have enclosed seeds.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  108. Q108Open question

    Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

    1. Tuberculosis – ATS
    2. Tetanus – BCG
    3. Malaria – Chloroquine
    4. Scurvy – Thiamine
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Malaria – Chloroquine

    Explanation

    Chloroquine treats malaria; BCG is for TB; ATS for tetanus; scurvy is due to lack of vitamin C.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: ATS is anti-tetanus serum; TB vaccine is BCG.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: BCG is for TB.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: chloroquine is an antimalarial drug.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: scurvy is vitamin C deficiency.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  109. Q109Open question

    Which animal lacks red blood corpuscles?

    1. Earthworm
    2. Snake
    3. Peacock
    4. Frog
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Earthworm

    Explanation

    In earthworms, haemoglobin floats freely in the blood plasma instead of being packed in RBCs.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: its haemoglobin is dissolved in plasma; it has no RBCs.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: has RBCs.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: has RBCs.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: has RBCs.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  110. Q110Open question

    What is finally formed after the breakdown of carbohydrates?

    1. Glycerol
    2. Glucose
    3. Maltose
    4. Amino acids
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Glucose

    Explanation

    Starch → maltose → glucose; fats → fatty acids + glycerol; proteins → amino acids.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: from fats.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: carbohydrates are digested to simple sugars like glucose.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: an intermediate.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: from proteins.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  111. Q111Open question

    Most enzymes are:

    1. Fats
    2. Acids
    3. Bases
    4. Proteins
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Proteins

    Explanation

    Enzymes are biological catalysts, mostly globular proteins.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not fats.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not acids.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not bases.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: nearly all enzymes are proteins (ribozymes are exceptions).

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  112. Q112Open question

    Which scientist/physician first introduced vaccination?

    1. Robert Koch
    2. Élie Metchnikoff
    3. Edward Jenner
    4. Joseph Lister
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Edward Jenner

    Explanation

    Edward Jenner used cowpox to protect against smallpox, founding vaccination.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: discovered TB and cholera bacteria.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: discovered phagocytosis.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Jenner developed the smallpox vaccine (1796).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: pioneered antiseptic surgery.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  113. Q113Open question

    What is the working principle of a washing machine (dryer)?

    1. Diffusion
    2. Centrifugation
    3. Dialysis
    4. Reverse osmosis
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Centrifugation

    Explanation

    The spin cycle uses centrifugal action to separate water from clothes.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the principle.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: spinning throws water out of clothes.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the principle.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: used in water purifiers.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  114. Q114Open question

    In which medium will the speed of light be minimum?

    1. Vacuum
    2. Air
    3. Glass
    4. Water
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Glass

    Explanation

    Speed of light = c/n; the higher the refractive index, the slower the light.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: maximum in vacuum.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: nearly as fast as in vacuum.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: glass (n ≈ 1.5) slows light the most here.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: n ≈ 1.33, less than glass.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  115. Q115Open question

    Which of the following is NOT a vector quantity?

    1. Velocity
    2. Torque
    3. Displacement
    4. Speed
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Speed

    Explanation

    Speed is the scalar magnitude of velocity.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: a vector.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: a vector.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: a vector.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: speed has magnitude only, so it is scalar.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  116. Q116Open question

    If the Earth's speed of rotation increased, the weight of a body at the equator would:

    1. decrease
    2. not change
    3. double
    4. increase
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) decrease

    Explanation

    At the equator effective g = g − ω²R, so faster rotation lowers weight (no change at the poles).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: greater centrifugal effect reduces apparent weight (g' = g − ω²R).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: it does change at the equator.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: incorrect.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: it decreases.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  117. Q117Open question

    Who first defined motion (scientifically)?

    1. Newton
    2. Kepler
    3. Ptolemy
    4. Galileo
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Galileo

    Explanation

    Galileo's experiments on inclined planes and falling bodies laid the foundation of kinematics.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Newton formulated laws later, building on Galileo.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: laws of planetary motion.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: geocentric model.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Galileo first described motion and inertia experimentally.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  118. Q118Open question

    Which law states that equal volumes of all gases at the same temperature and pressure contain the same number of molecules?

    1. Graham's law
    2. Pascal's law
    3. Avogadro's law
    4. Coriolis effect
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Avogadro's law

    Explanation

    Avogadro's law (1811): V ∝ n at constant T and P.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: deals with diffusion rates.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: deals with pressure in fluids.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: this is Avogadro's law.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: deflection due to Earth's rotation.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  119. Q119Open question

    Which scientist proposed the 'Theory of Relativity'?

    1. Isaac Newton
    2. Stephen Hawking
    3. Marie Curie
    4. Albert Einstein
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Albert Einstein

    Explanation

    Einstein's relativity introduced E = mc² and spacetime curvature.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: classical mechanics and gravitation.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: black-hole physics.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: radioactivity.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: special (1905) and general (1915) relativity.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  120. Q120Open question

    A potential difference develops in a conductor due to a temperature difference along it. This phenomenon is called:

    1. Joule effect
    2. Seebeck effect
    3. Peltier effect
    4. Thomson effect
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Thomson effect

    Explanation

    The Thomson effect involves a single conductor whose ends are at different temperatures.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: heating due to current.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: needs a junction of two different metals.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: heating/cooling at a junction due to current.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: concerns a single conductor with a temperature gradient.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  121. Q121Open question

    Who became the first player to cross 3,000 runs in T20 Internationals?

    1. Steve Smith
    2. Babar Azam
    3. M.S. Dhoni
    4. Virat Kohli
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Virat Kohli

    Explanation

    Virat Kohli became the first batter to reach 3,000 T20I runs in March 2021.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the first.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: crossed later.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: did not reach 3,000 T20I runs.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Kohli was the first to 3,000 T20I runs (2021).

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  122. Q122Open question

    What is the name of the campaign launched (June 2022) to ensure complete COVID-19 vaccination coverage?

    1. Atmanirbhar Tikakaran Abhiyan 2.0
    2. Pradhan Mantri Tikakaran Abhiyan
    3. Garib Kalyan Tikakaran Abhiyan 2.0
    4. Har Ghar Dastak Abhiyan 2.0
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Har Ghar Dastak Abhiyan 2.0

    Explanation

    Har Ghar Dastak 2.0 targeted elderly and missed beneficiaries for first, second and precaution doses.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the name.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the name.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the name.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the door-to-door drive launched in June 2022.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  123. Q123Open question

    Who became the new Chief Minister of Maharashtra after 30 June 2022?

    1. Eknath Shinde
    2. Ashok Chavan
    3. Sushil Kumar Shinde
    4. Devendra Fadnavis
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Eknath Shinde

    Explanation

    Eknath Shinde became CM after the Shiv Sena split, with Fadnavis as Deputy CM.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: sworn in on 30 June 2022.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: former CM.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: former CM.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: became Deputy CM then.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  124. Q124Open question

    Who launched the 'Har Ghar Tiranga' campaign on India's 75th Independence Day?

    1. NITI Aayog
    2. Indian Army
    3. Central Government
    4. Election Commission
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Central Government

    Explanation

    Har Ghar Tiranga (13–15 Aug 2022) encouraged citizens to hoist the flag at home.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the launcher.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the launcher.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: launched by the Government of India under Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the launcher.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  125. Q125Open question

    Which became the first state to begin implementing the Centre's new National Education Policy (in school education, 2022)?

    1. Haryana
    2. Rajasthan
    3. Punjab
    4. Uttarakhand
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Uttarakhand

    Explanation

    Uttarakhand claimed to be the first state to roll out NEP 2020 at school level (Karnataka had earlier begun in higher education).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the state in the news.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the state in the news.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the state in the news.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Uttarakhand began NEP implementation with Bal Vatikas in July 2022.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  126. Q126Open question

    Consider the following pairs of states and their Governors (as of 2022): 1. Rajasthan – Kalraj Mishra 2. Uttar Pradesh – Anandiben Patel 3. West Bengal – Satyapal Malik 4. Gujarat – Phagu Chauhan Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. 3 and 4 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. 1 and 2 only
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) 1 and 2 only

    Explanation

    In 2022, Satyapal Malik was Governor of Meghalaya, Phagu Chauhan of Bihar, and Acharya Devvrat of Gujarat.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: both pairs are wrong.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: pair 3 is wrong.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: 3 and 4 are wrong.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Kalraj Mishra (Rajasthan) and Anandiben Patel (UP) were correct; Phagu Chauhan was Bihar's Governor.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  127. Q127Open question

    Which ministry/organisation released the 'Youth in India 2022' report?

    1. Population Foundation of India
    2. Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)
    3. UN Population Fund
    4. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI)

    Explanation

    Youth in India 2022 (MoSPI) projected the youth share of population to decline after 2021.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the publisher.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: MoSPI's NSO published Youth in India 2022.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the publisher.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the publisher.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  128. Q128Open question

    Elavenil Valarivan, Shreya Agrawal and Ramita, seen in the news, are associated with which sport?

    1. Shooting
    2. Fencing
    3. Rowing
    4. Wrestling
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Shooting

    Explanation

    The trio won women's 10 m air rifle team gold at the ISSF World Cup in Changwon (July 2022).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: they are 10 m air rifle shooters (gold at Changwon ISSF World Cup 2022).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not their sport.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not their sport.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not their sport.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  129. Q129Open question

    Who was recently (July 2022) given charge of the Ministry of Minority Affairs?

    1. Amit Shah
    2. Nirmala Sitharaman
    3. Piyush Goyal
    4. Smriti Irani
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Smriti Irani

    Explanation

    Smriti Irani took additional charge of Minority Affairs in July 2022.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not given this charge.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not given this charge.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not given this charge.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: she got additional charge after Mukhtar Abbas Naqvi resigned.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  130. Q130Open question

    Who was the opposition (UPA-backed) candidate in India's 15th Presidential election?

    1. Shatrughan Sinha
    2. Droupadi Murmu
    3. Shankar Agrawal
    4. Yashwant Sinha
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Yashwant Sinha

    Explanation

    Droupadi Murmu defeated Yashwant Sinha in July 2022 to become the 15th President.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the candidate.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: she was the NDA candidate and won.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the candidate.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the joint opposition candidate in 2022.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  131. Q131Open question

    Who received the International Booker Prize for the novel 'Tomb of Sand' (Ret Samadhi)?

    1. Arundhati Roy
    2. Anita Desai
    3. Kiran Desai
    4. Geetanjali Shree
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Geetanjali Shree

    Explanation

    Ret Samadhi was the first Hindi novel to win the International Booker Prize (2022).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: won the Booker (1997) for The God of Small Things.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this award.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: won the Booker (2006).

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: won the 2022 International Booker with translator Daisy Rockwell.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  132. Q132Open question

    Who from Bihar was honoured with the Dadasaheb Phalke Indian Television Award in 2022?

    1. Deep Shrestha
    2. Madan Pandey
    3. Shatrughan Sinha
    4. Sharda Sinha
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Deep Shrestha

    Explanation

    Deep Shrestha of Bihar received the Dadasaheb Phalke Indian Television Award in 2022.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: the Bihar-born actor-singer received this award in 2022.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the awardee.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this award.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this award.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  133. Q133Open question

    According to the Bihar Economic Survey 2021-22, what is the current level of urbanisation in the state?

    1. 22.4%
    2. 15.3%
    3. 18.6%
    4. 11.6%
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) 15.3%

    Explanation

    Bihar's urbanisation rose from 11.3% (Census 2011) to about 15.3% as new urban local bodies were created.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: too high.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: the Survey put urbanisation at 15.3% after notifying new urban bodies.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the Survey figure.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: close to the 2011 Census figure (11.3%).

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  134. Q134Open question

    Who is the brand ambassador of Khadi in Bihar?

    1. Rajesh Tiwari
    2. Manoj Tiwari
    3. Manoj Bajpayee
    4. Pawan Singh
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Manoj Tiwari

    Explanation

    Bhojpuri singer-actor and MP Manoj Tiwari promoted Bihar Khadi as its brand ambassador.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the ambassador.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Manoj Tiwari was named Bihar Khadi's brand ambassador.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the Khadi ambassador.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the ambassador.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  135. Q135Open question

    In which district of Bihar will the world's tallest (251 m) statue of Mata Sita be built?

    1. Sitamarhi
    2. Bodh Gaya
    3. Patna
    4. Madhubani
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Sitamarhi

    Explanation

    A 251 m Sita statue was announced for Sitamarhi, believed to be her birthplace (Punaura Dham).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: planned at Sitamarhi, Sita's birthplace.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the site.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the site.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the site.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  136. Q136Open question

    Match List-I with List-II (as of 2022): a. Governor of Bihar b. Chief Justice (Patna HC) c. Chief Minister of Bihar d. Chief Electoral Officer of Bihar 1. Nitish Kumar 2. H.R. Srinivas 3. Sanjay Karol 4. Phagu Chauhan

    1. a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
    2. a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2
    3. a-4, b-1, c-3, d-2
    4. a-3, b-2, c-1, d-4
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) a-4, b-3, c-1, d-2

    Explanation

    In 2022: Governor Phagu Chauhan, Patna HC Chief Justice Sanjay Karol, CM Nitish Kumar, CEO H.R. Srinivas.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Nitish Kumar is CM, not Governor.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Phagu Chauhan, Sanjay Karol, Nitish Kumar, H.R. Srinivas.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: b and c are swapped.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: most pairs are wrong.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  137. Q137Open question

    'Operation Prahar' in Bihar is related to:

    1. Literacy campaign
    2. Smoking ban
    3. Liquor prohibition
    4. COVID-19 vaccination
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Liquor prohibition

    Explanation

    Operation Prahar was a Bihar Police crackdown linked to enforcing liquor prohibition (in force since 2016).

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: Bihar police drive enforcing prohibition.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not related.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  138. Q138Open question

    Which medal did Ritik Anand of Bihar win for India in badminton at the 24th Summer Deaflympics in Brazil?

    1. Silver
    2. Bronze
    3. Platinum
    4. Gold
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Gold

    Explanation

    India won the mixed team badminton gold at the 2022 Caxias do Sul Deaflympics, with Ritik Anand in the squad.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not his medal.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not his medal.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: no such medal.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: he was part of India's gold-winning badminton team.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  139. Q139Open question

    Where in Bihar was North India's first 'Bird Ringing Station' opened?

    1. Saran
    2. East Champaran
    3. West Champaran
    4. Bhagalpur
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Bhagalpur

    Explanation

    Bhagalpur's bird ringing station, with BNHS, helps track migratory birds.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the site.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the site.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the site.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: the station was set up at Bhagalpur (Sunderban, Vikramshila area).

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  140. Q140Open question

    Which of the following started the 'Vulture Conservation Scheme' in Bihar?

    1. Rajgir Wildlife Sanctuary
    2. Valmiki Tiger Reserve
    3. Kanwar Lake Bird Sanctuary
    4. Kaimur Tiger Reserve
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Valmiki Tiger Reserve

    Explanation

    Valmiki Tiger Reserve began a vulture conservation programme, with vulture-safe zones.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the initiator.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Valmiki Tiger Reserve launched the vulture conservation plan.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the initiator.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the initiator.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  141. Q141Open question

    The 'Sunandini Programme' is related to:

    1. Auxiliary Nurse Midwives (ANMs)
    2. Doctors at Primary Health Centres
    3. Gram Panchayat members
    4. Anganwadi workers
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Anganwadi workers

    Explanation

    Sunandini is a Bihar initiative for capacity-building of Anganwadi workers.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the target group.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the target group.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not the target group.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: it trains/empowers Anganwadi workers.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  142. Q142Open question

    Former Prime Minister Shinzo Abe was shot dead during an election campaign in July 2022. Which country was he from?

    1. Japan
    2. Ukraine
    3. Sri Lanka
    4. France
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Japan

    Explanation

    Shinzo Abe was assassinated on 8 July 2022 in Nara, Japan.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Abe was Japan's longest-serving PM, killed in Nara.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not his country.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not his country.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not his country.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  143. Q143Open question

    The UN General Assembly adopted an India-sponsored resolution on multilingualism that, for the first time, mentions which language?

    1. Sanskrit
    2. Bengali
    3. Hindi
    4. Urdu
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Hindi

    Explanation

    The resolution encouraged the UN to continue sharing information in Hindi, Bangla and Urdu; Hindi was the headline.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not mentioned.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: also mentioned, but Hindi is the highlighted answer.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the June 2022 resolution mentioned Hindi for the first time.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: also mentioned, but Hindi is the highlighted answer.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  144. Q144Open question

    Who presided over the UNGA emergency special session on Russia's military operations in Ukraine?

    1. Volkan Bozkır
    2. António Guterres
    3. Kofi Annan
    4. Abdulla Shahid
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Abdulla Shahid

    Explanation

    The 11th Emergency Special Session (Feb–Mar 2022) was presided over by Abdulla Shahid.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: UNGA 75 president (2020–21).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: UN Secretary-General, not GA president.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: former Secretary-General (died 2018).

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: as UNGA 76 president (Maldives) he chaired the 2022 session.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  145. Q145Open question

    Under which mission did India evacuate its citizens from war-hit Ukraine in February 2022?

    1. Operation Maitri
    2. Operation Vijay
    3. Operation Ganga
    4. Operation Rakshak
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Operation Ganga

    Explanation

    Operation Ganga used neighbouring countries (Romania, Hungary, Poland, Slovakia) to fly students home.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: Nepal earthquake relief (2015).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: Kargil (1999)/Goa (1961).

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: evacuated about 18,000 Indians from Ukraine.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: counter-insurgency in J&K/Punjab.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  146. Q146Open question

    China recently claimed areas around the 'Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary' as disputed. Where is this sanctuary?

    1. Bhutan
    2. Nepal
    3. Bangladesh
    4. Arunachal Pradesh
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) Bhutan

    Explanation

    China raised a claim on Sakteng at a Global Environment Facility meeting in 2020.

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: Sakteng is in eastern Bhutan (Trashigang).

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not in Nepal.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not in Bangladesh.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: it borders Arunachal but lies in Bhutan.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  147. Q147Open question

    Which state/UT of India was chosen to host the G20 Summit in 2023?

    1. Gujarat
    2. Jammu and Kashmir
    3. Delhi
    4. Goa
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (C) Delhi

    Explanation

    India's G20 Leaders' Summit took place in New Delhi on 9–10 September 2023.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: hosted some meetings, not the summit.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: hosted a tourism working group meeting, not the summit.

    • (C) Correct

      Correct: the summit was held at Bharat Mandapam, New Delhi (Sept 2023).

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: hosted some meetings, not the summit.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  148. Q148Open question

    With reference to UN peacekeeping operations, consider the following: 1. UN peacekeepers may use force only for self-defence. 2. A peacekeeping mission can be withdrawn only by a UN Security Council resolution. 3. The USA is the largest budget contributor to UN peacekeeping. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

    1. 2 and 3 only
    2. 3 only
    3. 1, 2 and 3
    4. 1 and 2 only
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (A) 2 and 3 only

    Explanation

    Peacekeepers may use force in self-defence and defence of the mandate; the UNSC mandates and ends missions; the US pays the largest share (~27%).

    • (A) Correct

      Correct: force may also be used in defence of the mandate, so 1 is wrong.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 2 is also correct.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is too narrow.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: statement 1 is wrong; 3 is correct.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  149. Q149Open question

    Which country recently signed a Free Trade Agreement with the UAE (2022)?

    1. Australia
    2. Italy
    3. Pakistan
    4. Israel
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (D) Israel

    Explanation

    The UAE–Israel FTA (May 2022) followed the 2020 Abraham Accords.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not in 2022.

    • (B) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this FTA.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not this FTA.

    • (D) Correct

      Correct: Israel signed an FTA with the UAE in May 2022, its first with an Arab state.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

  150. Q150Open question

    Which country launched its first satellite 'Arktika-M' to monitor the Arctic climate?

    1. China
    2. Russia
    3. India
    4. Japan
    5. None of the above / More than one of the above
    Show answer & explanation

    Answer: (B) Russia

    Explanation

    Arktika-M, on a highly elliptical Molniya orbit, monitors weather and climate in the Arctic.

    • (A) Incorrect

      Wrong: not China.

    • (B) Correct

      Correct: Russia launched Arktika-M in February 2021.

    • (C) Incorrect

      Wrong: not India.

    • (D) Incorrect

      Wrong: not Japan.

    • (E) Incorrect

      Wrong: only one of the options A–D is correct.

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